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PMI CAPM Sample Question Answers

Question # 1

Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution? 

A. Requested changes  
B. Approved change requests  
C. Work performance information  
D. Implemented defect repair  

Question # 2

Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:

A. Budget plan  
B. Resource plan  
C. Scope plan  
D. Strategic plan  

Question # 3

An output of the Create WBS process is: 

A. Scope baseline.  
B. Project scope statement.  
C. Organizational process assets.  
D. Requirements traceability matrix.  

Question # 4

Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?

A. Histogram  
B. Quality audits  
C. Benchmarking  
D. Performance measurement analysis  

Question # 5

Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan? 

A. Expert judgment  
B. Project management methodology  
C. Project management information system (PMIS)  
D. Project selection methods  

Question # 6

Conflict should be best addressed in which manner? 

A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach  
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach  
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach  
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach  

Question # 7

Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area? 

A. Manage Project Team  
B. Collect Requirements  
C. Sequence Activities  
D. Direct and Manage Project Work  

Question # 8

When does Monitor and Control Risks occur? 

A. At project initiation  
B. During work performance analysis  
C. Throughout the life of the project  
D. At project milestones  

Question # 9

Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?

A. Scope audits  
B. Scope reviews  
C. Quality audits  
D. Control chart  

Question # 10

Which is an example of Administer Procurements? 

A. Negotiating the contract  
B. Authorizing contractor work  
C. Developing the statement of work  
D. Establishing evaluation criteria  

Question # 11

An output of the Develop Project Team process is: 

A. change requests  
B. team performance assessments  
C. project staff assignments  
D. project documents updates  

Question # 12

Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?

A. Plan Communications  
B. Performance reporting  
C. Project status reports  
D. Distribute Information  

Question # 13

What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)? 

A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business objectives. 
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly. 
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues. 
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages. 

Question # 14

Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?

A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting

Question # 15

While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?

A. Utilize the change control process.  
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.  
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.  
D. Fast-track the remaining development.  

Question # 16

Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing

Question # 17

Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?

A. Program  
B. Functional  
C. Project  
D. Portfolio  

Question # 18

Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?

A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work

Question # 19

Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget? 

A. Monitoring and Controlling  
B. Executing  
C. Planning  
D. Initiating  

Question # 20

What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?

A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis

Question # 21

What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?

A. Role dependencies chart  
B. Reporting flow diagram  
C. Project organization chart  
D. Project team structure diagram  

Question # 22

Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?

A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources

Question # 23

Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?

A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning

Question # 24

Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks? 

A. Identify Risks  
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis  
C. Plan Risk Management  
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis  

Question # 25

The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:

A. always be applied uniformly.
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team.
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines.

Question # 26

Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?

A. Histograms  
B. Scatter diagrams  
C. Flowcharts  
D. Checksheets  

Question # 27

Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?

A. Market conditions and published commercial information
B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions

Question # 28

Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?

A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information

Question # 29

What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?

A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination

Question # 30

At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?

A. Final phase of the project  
B. Start of the project  
C. End of the project  
D. Midpoint of the project  

Question # 31

Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?

A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle

Question # 32

Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?

A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)  
B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)  
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)  
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)  

Question # 33

If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?

A. One
B. Five 
C. Six
D. Seven

Question # 34

An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:

A. Make-or-buy decisions.
B. Activity cost estimates.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Procurement documents.

Question # 35

When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?

A. Bottom-up  
B. Parametric  
C. Analogous  
D. Three-point  

Question # 36

A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:

A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.
D. Project documents and historical information.

Question # 37

The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:

A. Methodology  
B. Risk category  
C. Risk attitude  
D. Assumption analysis  

Question # 38

Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?

A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend

Question # 39

A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan? 

A. Resource plan  
B. Project management plan  
C. Cost control plan  
D. Expected monetary value plan  

Question # 40

What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?

A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis

Question # 41

Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process? 

A. Change requests  
B. Performance reports  
C. Organizational process assets  
D. Project management plan  

Question # 42

What is the total float of the critical path?

A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar

Question # 43

The Human Resource Management processes are: 

A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and Manage Project Team. 
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and Develop Project Team. 
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and Manage Project Team. 
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire Project Team

Question # 44

Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?

A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule

Question # 45

Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?

A. Project Integration Management  
B. Project Communications Management  
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)  
D. Project Scope Management

Question # 46

Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?

A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)

Question # 47

Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to: 

A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.  
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.  
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.  
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.  

Question # 48

Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?

A. Analogous  
B. Parametric  
C. Bottom-up  
D. Top-down  

Question # 49

An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?

A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity

Question # 50

When can pre-assignment of project team members occur? 

A. When the project uses capital expenditures  
A. When the project uses capital expenditures  
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses  
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive proposal 

Question # 51

Portfolio Management is management of:

A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.
C. all projects undertaken by a company.
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.

Question # 52

Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?

A. Estimate Costs  
B. Plan Cost Management  
C. Determine Budget  
D. Control Costs  

Question # 53

Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?

A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.  
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.  
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.  
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.  

Question # 54

Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter

Question # 55

The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document? 

A. Schedule management plan  
B. Project management plan  
C. Quality management plan  
D. Resource management plan  

Question # 56

When is a Salience Model used?

A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)

Question # 57

Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?

A. Collect Requirements  
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution  
C. Monitor and Control Project Work  
D. Develop Project Management Plan  

Question # 58

Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?

A. Organizational process assets
B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 59

Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?  

A. Monitoring and Controlling  
B. Initiating  
C. Planning  
D. Executing  

Question # 60

Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?

A. Procurement audit
B. Lessons learned
C. Performance reporting
D. Payment requests

Question # 61

What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution? 

A. Integrating all planned activities  
B. Performing the activities included in the plan  
C. Developing and maintaining the plan  
D. Execution of deliverables  

Question # 62

Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?

A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase

Question # 63

Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles? 

A. Staffing level is highest at the start.  
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.  
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.  
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.  

Question # 64

What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?

A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade

Question # 65

Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?

A. Build vs. buy  
B. Expert judgment  
C. Alternatives identification  
D. Product analysis  

Question # 66

Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?

A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating

Question # 67

Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?

A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation

Question # 68

Which type of managers do composite organizations involve? 

A. Functional managers and manager of project managers  
B. Functional managers only  
C. Project managers only  
D. Technical managers and project managers  

Question # 69

The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:

A. Define Activities.  
B. Sequence Activities.  
C. Define Scope.  
D. Control Schedule.  

Question # 70

The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?

A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing

Question # 71

To which process is work performance information an input? 

A. Administer Procurements  
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution  
C. Create WBS  
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis  

Question # 72

During which process group is the quality policy determined?

A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling

Question # 73

The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with: 

A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.  
B. accuracy of the work deliverables.  
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement.  
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).  

Question # 74

Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:

A. quality audits
B. process analysis
C. statistical sampling
D. benchmarking

Question # 75

An input of the Control Schedule process is the: 

A. resource calendar.  
B. activity list.  
C. risk management plan.  
D. organizational process assets.  

Question # 76

The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?

A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management

Question # 77

Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process? 

A. Organizational process assets  
B. Resource availability  
C. Perform Integrated Change Control  
D. Team performance assessment  

Question # 78

The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:

A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking

Question # 79

What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?

A. 0.45  
B. 0.56  
C. 0.70  
D. 1.36  

Question # 80

Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?

A. Bottom-up  
B. Three-point  
C. Parametric  
D. Analogous  

Question # 81

Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?

A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors

Question # 82

As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?

A. BAC  
B. EAC  
C. ETC  
D. WBS  

Question # 83

Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process? 

A. Schedule  
B. Checklist  
C. Assumption  
D. Cost-Benefit  

Question # 84

Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?

A. Project management information system
B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Variance analysis

Question # 85

Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?

A. Product  
B. Cost-benefit  
C. Stakeholder  
D. Research  

Question # 86

What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?

A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)

Question # 87

Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication? 

A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.  
B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.  
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.  
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.  

Question # 88

Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?

A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid

Question # 89

Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?

A. The customer and functional managers  
B. The risk owners and stakeholders  
C. The sponsors and stakeholders  
D. The project management team  

Question # 90

Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?

A. Project charter  
B. Project scope statement  
C. Scope management plan  
D. Project document updates  

Question # 91

When is a project finished?

A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released

Question # 92

Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?

A. Coaching
B. Avoidance  
C. Consensus  
D. Influencing  

Question # 93

The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?

A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative

Question # 94

A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:

A. To the project management plan.  
B. To the risk register.  
C. In the scope verification processes.  
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.  

Question # 95

A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:

A. plan
B. process
C. program
D. portfolio

Question # 96

What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?

A. Risk register  
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)  
C. Risk management plan  
D. Risk category  

Question # 97

Outputs of the Control Communications process include: 

A. expert judgment and change requests  
B. work performance information and change requests  
C. project management plan updates and work performance information  
D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates  

Question # 98

A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:

A. budget at completion (BAC)
B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index

Question # 99

Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities? 

A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)  
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update  
C. Project schedule network diagram  
D. Mandatory dependencies list  

Question # 100

Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?

A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts

Question # 101

Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?

A. Resource breakdown structure  
B. Staffing management plan  
C. Project organizational chart  
D. Scope management plan  

Question # 102

An input required in Define Scope is an organizational: 

A. structure.  
B. process asset.  
C. matrix.  
D. breakdown structure.  

Question # 103

Assigned risk ratings are based upon:

A. Root cause analysis.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances.

Question # 104

The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as: 

A. Validate Scope.  
B. Close Project or Phase.  
C. Control Quality.  
D. Verify Scope.  

Question # 105

Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:

A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.
D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.

Question # 106

Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?

A. Develop Project Management Plan  
B. Develop Project Charter  
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution  
D. Collect Requirements  

Question # 107

An output of Control Schedule is: 

A. A project schedule network diagram  
B. A schedule management plan  
C. Schedule data  
D. Schedule forecasts  

Question # 108

What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?

A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan

Question # 109

The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project? 

A. US$158,700  
B. US$172,500  
C. US$187,500  
D. US$245,600  

Question # 110

The stakeholder register is an output of: 

A. Identify Stakeholders.  
B. Plan Stakeholder Management.  
C. Control Stakeholder Engagement.  
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.  

Question # 111

Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?

A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates

Question # 112

The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as: 

A. Supportive  
B. Leading  
C. Neutral  
D. Resistant  

Question # 113

Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?

A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming

Question # 114

In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?

A. Functional manager  
B. Project manager  
C. Program manager  
D. Project management office  

Question # 115

Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?

A. Cost management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Communications management plan
D. Risk management plan

Question # 116

What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?

A. Decomposition  
B. Benchmarking  
C. Inspection  
D. Checklist analysis  

Question # 117

What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?

A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi

Question # 118

Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations? 

A. Critical path method  
B. Rolling wave planning  
C. Precedence diagramming method  
D. Parametric estimating  

Question # 119

Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?

A. Sensitivity analysis  
B. Probability and impact matrix  
C. Risk data quality assessment  
D. Risk categorization  

Question # 120

Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses

Question # 121

A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?

A. -700  
B. -200  
C. 200  
D. 500  

Question # 122

Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?

A. Portfolio
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operations

Question # 123

Organizations perceive risks as: 

A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.  
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.  
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.  

Question # 124

What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?

A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.

Question # 125

Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget

Question # 126

An input to the Create WBS process is a:

A. project charter.
B. stakeholder register.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements traceability matrix.

Question # 127

Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?

A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.

Question # 128

The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:

A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach

Question # 129

What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?

A. Scope changes  
B. Resource limitations  
C. Risk analysis  
D. Quality audits  

Question # 130

Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?

A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions

Question # 131

Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:

A. Product performance.  
B. Budget process.  
C. Collective capabilities.  
D. Organizational strategy.  

Question # 132

The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:

A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)

Question # 133

Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?

A. Crashing  
B. Fast tracking  
C. Leads and lags adjustment  
D. Parallel task development  

Question # 134

What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?

A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved

Question # 135

The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:

A. sponsor
B. customer
C. business partners
D. functional managers

Question # 136

The product scope description is used to:

A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.

Question # 137

Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes? 

A. Control Costs  
B. Determine Budget  
C. Estimate Costs  
C. Estimate Costs  

Question # 138

A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:

A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.
B. Central coordination of communication management across projects.
C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.

Question # 139

What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness? 

A. Sole-sum  
B. Win-lose  
C. Lose-win  
D. Partial-sum  

Question # 140

The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:

A. Plan Procurements.  
B. Control Procurements.  
C. Close Procurements.  
D. Conduct Procurements.  

Question # 141

The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:

A. Intuitive
B. Iterative
C. Measured
D. Monitored

Question # 142

When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model? 

A. Before constraints have been identified  
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method  
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method  
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path  

Question # 143

Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?

A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline

Question # 144

Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope? 

B. Variance analysis  
C. Reserve analysis  
D. Stakeholder analysis  

Question # 145

Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?

A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials

Question # 146

Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?

A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor

Question # 147

Most experienced project managers know that:

A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.
B. there is no single way to manage a project.
C. project management techniques are risk free.
D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully.

Question # 148

Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?

A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment

Question # 149

What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?

A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16

Question # 150

An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:

A. Forecasting,
B. Brainstorming.
C. Historical databases.
D. Cost of quality.

Question # 151

The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:

A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs

Question # 152

Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:

A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.

Question # 153

Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?

A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional

Question # 154

Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?

A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear

Question # 155

The following is a network diagram for a project.What is the critical path for the project?

A. A-B-C-F-G-I 
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I

Question # 156

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?

A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.25
D. 1.8

Question # 157

Through whom do project managers accomplish work?

A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders

Question # 158

Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?

A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts

Question # 159

What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?

A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50

Question # 160

Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?

A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses

Question # 161

Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?

A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct

Question # 162

The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:

A. Earned value management.
B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.

Question # 163

In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:

A. Estimating
B. Scheduling
C. Controlling
D. Communicating 

Question # 164

The following is a network diagram for a project.The total float for the project is how many days?

A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14

Question # 165

Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?

A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs

Question # 166

Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:

A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings

Question # 167

Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?

A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule

Question # 168

Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?

A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register

Question # 169

Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Question # 170

Which type of graphic is displayed below?

A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram

Question # 171

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?

A. -2,000
B. 0
C. 1,000
D. 2,000

Question # 172

The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?

A. 0.8  
B. 0.89  
C. 1.13  
D. 1.25  

Question # 173

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?

A. Networking  
B. Training  
C. Negotiation  
D. Issue log  

Question # 174

The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:

A. work breakdown structure (WBS).  
B. schedule target.  
C. performance measurement baseline (PMB).  
D. earned value baseline.  

Question # 175

Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?

A. Recognized by every project manager  
B. Constantly evolving  
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management  
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project  

Question # 176

At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:

A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.

Question # 177

Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work? 

A. External  
B. Lead  
Discretionary
D. Mandatory  

Question # 178

Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?

A. Project statement of work 
B. Selected sellers 
C. Risk register updates 
D. Teaming agreements  

Question # 179

In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:

A. Within a work package.
B. In each phase of the project.
C. To estimate schedule constraints.
D. To estimate resource allocations.

Question # 180

The staffing management plan is part of the:

A. organizational process assets.  
B. resource calendar.  
C. human resource plan.  
D. Develop Project Team process.

Question # 181

At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?

A. Result
B. Product
C. Service
D. Improvement

Question # 182

Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?

A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF) 
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF) 
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP) 
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA) 

Question # 183

Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to: 

A. Create WBS.  
B. complete project work.  
C. calculate costs.  
D. Develop Project Management Plan. 

Question # 184

Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:

A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control

Question # 185

Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process? 

A. Variance analysis  
B. Three-point estimating  
C. Bottom-up estimating  
D. Historical relationships  

Question # 186

Which term describes an assessment of correctness?

A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality

Question # 187

A project lifecycle is defined as:

A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.  
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession. 
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the project requirements. 

Question # 188

In project management, a temporary project can be:

A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods

Question # 189

Which process requires implementation of approved changes?

A. Direct and Manage Project Execution  
B. Monitor and Control Project Work  
C. Perform Integrated Change Control  
D. Close Project or Phase  

Question # 190

The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is

A. Define Activities.  
B. Create WBS.  
C. Define Scope.  
D. Develop Schedule.  

Question # 191

Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?

A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control

Question # 192

At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?

A. Forming  
B. Storming  
C. Norming  
D. Performing  

Question # 193

Outputs of the Control Communications process include:

A. expert judgment and change requests.
B. work performance information and change requests.
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
D. project management plan updates and an issue log.

Question # 194

Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process? 

A. Performance measure 
B. Baseline schedule 
C. Schedule network analysis 
D. Variance analysis 

Question # 195

Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:

A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements.

Question # 196

The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they

A. operate separately. 
B. move together in batches,
C. overlap and interact. 
D. move in a sequence

Question # 197

Which action is included in the Control Costs process?

A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline

Question # 198

Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan? 

A. Corrective action  
B. Defect repair 
C. Preventative action 
D. Probable action 

Question # 199

The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the: 

A. assumption log.  
B. quality checklist. 
C. risk register. 
D. contract type.Answer: D 

Question # 200

Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?

A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget

Question # 201

Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements? 

A. Accepted deliverables  
B. Organizational process assets updates 
C. Managing stakeholder expectations 
D. Performance reports 

Question # 202

One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:

A. outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.
B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.
C. improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.
D. provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.

Question # 203

Which characteristics do effective project managers possess? 

A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness  
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics  
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge  
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills  

Question # 204

Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle? 

A. Ishikawa diagram  
B. Control chart  
C. Run chart  
D. Pareto chart  

Question # 205

The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:

A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite

Question # 206

Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:

A. project documents updates.
B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information.

Question # 207

A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?

A. Formal
B. Informal r
C. Horizontal
D. Unofficial

Question # 208

A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:

A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology

Question # 209

Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?

A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register

Question # 210

In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?

A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest

Question # 211

Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?

A. Product analysis  
B. Project charter  
C. Scope baseline  
D. Project scope statement  

Question # 212

A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?

A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan

Question # 213

An input of the Create WBS process is:

A. requirements documentation.  
B. scope baseline.  
C. project charter.  
D. validated deliverables.  

Question # 214

Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?

A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents

Question # 215

In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance? 

A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)  
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)  
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)  

Question # 216

For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:

A. Monitor the stakeholder.
B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.

Question # 217

Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications? 

A. Initiating  
B. Planning  
C. Executing  
D. Closing  

Question # 218

Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?

A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline  
B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline  
C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline  
D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline  

Question # 219

A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:

A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management

Question # 220

What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?

A. Increases  
B. Decreases  
C. Stays the same  
D. Has no bearing  

Question # 221

Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?

A. Work performance reports
B. Accepted deliverables
C. Project management plan updates
D. Organizational process assets

Question # 222

The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:

A. majority rule technique.  
B. nominal group technique.  
C. Delphi technique,  
D. idea/mind mapping technique.  

Question # 223

Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:

A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register

Question # 224

Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:

A. manager.  
B. success.
C. deadline. 
D. scope.

Question # 225

Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?

A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems

Question # 226

Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan? 

A. Project management plan  
B. Activity resource requirements  
C. Resource calendar  
D. Project staff assignments  

Question # 227

The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?

A. -2,000
B. -1,000
C. 1,000
D. 2,000