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Frequently Asked Questions
Question # 1
Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Requested changes
B. Approved change requests
C. Work performance information
D. Implemented defect repair
Question # 2
Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
A. Budget plan
B. Resource plan
C. Scope plan
D. Strategic plan
Question # 3
An output of the Create WBS process is:
A. Scope baseline.
B. Project scope statement.
C. Organizational process assets.
D. Requirements traceability matrix.
Question # 4
Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
A. Histogram
B. Quality audits
C. Benchmarking
D. Performance measurement analysis
Question # 5
Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
A. Expert judgment
B. Project management methodology
C. Project management information system (PMIS)
D. Project selection methods
Question # 6
Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
A. Early, in private, using a direct, collaborative approach
B. Early, in public, using an indirect, collaborative approach
C. Early, in private, using an indirect, cooperative approach
D. As late as possible, in public, using a direct, confrontational approach
Question # 7
Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Manage Project Team
B. Collect Requirements
C. Sequence Activities
D. Direct and Manage Project Work
Question # 8
When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
A. At project initiation
B. During work performance analysis
C. Throughout the life of the project
D. At project milestones
Question # 9
Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?
A. Scope audits
B. Scope reviews
C. Quality audits
D. Control chart
Question # 10
Which is an example of Administer Procurements?
A. Negotiating the contract
B. Authorizing contractor work
C. Developing the statement of work
D. Establishing evaluation criteria
Question # 11
An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
A. change requests
B. team performance assessments
C. project staff assignments
D. project documents updates
Question # 12
Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?
A. Plan Communications
B. Performance reporting
C. Project status reports
D. Distribute Information
Question # 13
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
A. To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and
subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations or the client's overall business
objectives.
B. To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent
organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
C. To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team
members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
D. To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost,
and quality of the work packages.
Question # 14
Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?
A. Negotiation
B. Roles and responsibilities
C. Recognition and rewards
D. Prizing and promoting
Question # 15
While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
A. Utilize the change control process.
B. Crash the schedule to fix the defect.
C. Leave the defect in and work around it.
D. Fast-track the remaining development.
Question # 16
Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Initiating
B. Monitoring and Controlling
C. Planning
D. Closing
Question # 17
Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?
A. Program
B. Functional
C. Project
D. Portfolio
Question # 18
Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Evaluation criteria
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Procurement statement of work
Question # 19
Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Initiating
Question # 20
What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
A. Failure modes and effects analysis
B. Design of experiments
C. Quality checklist
D. Risk analysis
Question # 21
What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
A. Role dependencies chart
B. Reporting flow diagram
C. Project organization chart
D. Project team structure diagram
Question # 22
Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?
A. Control Schedule
B. Define Activities
C. Develop Schedule
D. Estimate Activity Resources
Question # 23
Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
A. Human resource planning
B. Fast tracking
C. Critical chain method
D. Rolling wave planning
Question # 24
Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
A. Identify Risks
B. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
Question # 25
The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:
A. always be applied uniformly.
B. be selected as appropriate by the sponsor.
C. be selected as appropriate by the project team.
D. be applied based on ISO guidelines.
Question # 26
Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?
A. Histograms
B. Scatter diagrams
C. Flowcharts
D. Checksheets
Question # 27
Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?
A. Market conditions and published commercial information
B. Company structure and market conditions
C. Commercial information and company structure
D. Existing human resources and market conditions
Question # 28
Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?
A. Project statement of work
B. Business case
C. Accepted deliverable
D. Work performance information
Question # 29
What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
A. Finish-to-start planning
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Short term planning
D. Dependency determination
Question # 30
At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
A. Final phase of the project
B. Start of the project
C. End of the project
D. Midpoint of the project
Question # 31
Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
A. Complete project phase
B. Project life
C. The project life cycle
D. Project cycle
Question # 32
Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?
A. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments Contract (FP-EPA)
B. Cost-Reimbursable Contract (CR)
C. Firm-Fixed -Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee Contract (FPIF)
Question # 33
If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst-case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
A. One
B. Five
C. Six
D. Seven
Question # 34
An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
A. Make-or-buy decisions.
B. Activity cost estimates.
C. Seller proposals.
D. Procurement documents.
Question # 35
When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
A. Bottom-up
B. Parametric
C. Analogous
D. Three-point
Question # 36
A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:
A. Historical information and the lessons-learned database.
B. Historical information and the stakeholder register.
C. Organizational process assets and the lessons-learned database.
D. Project documents and historical information.
Question # 37
The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:
A. Methodology
B. Risk category
C. Risk attitude
D. Assumption analysis
Question # 38
Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
A. Control chart
B. Earned value
C. Variance
D. Trend
Question # 39
A procurement management plan is a subsidiary of which other type of plan?
A. Resource plan
B. Project management plan
C. Cost control plan
D. Expected monetary value plan
Question # 40
What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
A. Cost aggregation
B. Trend analysis
C. Forecasting
D. Variance analysis
Question # 41
Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
A. Change requests
B. Performance reports
C. Organizational process assets
D. Project management plan
Question # 42
What is the total float of the critical path?
A. Can be any number
B. Zero or positive
C. Zero or negative
D. Depends on the calendar
Question # 43
The Human Resource Management processes are:
A. Develop Human Resource Plan, Acquire Project Team, Develop Project Team, and
Manage Project Team.
B. Acquire Project Team, Manage Project Team, Manage Stakeholder Expectations, and
Develop Project Team.
C. Acquire Project Team, Develop Human Resource Plan, Conflict Management, and
Manage Project Team.
D. Develop Project Team, Manage Project Team, Estimate Activity Resources, and Acquire
Project Team
Question # 44
Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
A. Activity list
B. Project plan
C. Activity duration estimates
D. Project schedule
Question # 45
Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
A. Project Integration Management
B. Project Communications Management
C. Project Information Management System (PIMS)
D. Project Scope Management
Question # 46
Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
A. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. Network diagrams
C. Staffing management plan
D. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
Question # 47
Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
A. Communicate identified risks to the project stakeholders.
B. Conduct risk management activities for a project.
C. Analyze the impact a specific risk may have on the project.
D. Address unexpected risks that may occur during a project.
Question # 48
Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?
A. Analogous
B. Parametric
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Question # 49
An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
A. Customer request
B. Market demand
C. Technological advance
D. Strategic opportunity
Question # 50
When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
A. When the project uses capital expenditures
C. When the project would be ignored due to travel expenses
D. When the project is the result of specific people being promised as part of a competitive
proposal
Question # 51
Portfolio Management is management of:
A. a project by dividing the project into more manageable sub-projects.
B. a project by utilizing a portfolio of general management skills such as planning, organizing, staffing, executing, and controlling.
C. all projects undertaken by a company.
D. a collection of projects that are grouped together to facilitate effective management and meet strategic business objectives.
Question # 52
Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Plan Cost Management
C. Determine Budget
D. Control Costs
Question # 53
Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?
A. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes increases.
B. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes increases.
C. The influence of the stakeholders increases, the cost of changes decreases.
D. The influence of the stakeholders decreases, the cost of changes decreases.
Question # 54
Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Develop Project Management Plan
C. Close Project
D. Develop Project Charter
Question # 55
The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
A. Schedule management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Quality management plan
D. Resource management plan
Question # 56
When is a Salience Model used?
A. In a work breakdown structure (WBS)
B. During quality assurance
C. In stakeholder analysis
D. During quality control (QC)
Question # 57
Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
A. Collect Requirements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Monitor and Control Project Work
D. Develop Project Management Plan
Question # 58
Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. A work breakdown structure
C. The project management plan
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Question # 59
Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Initiating
C. Planning
D. Executing
Question # 60
Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?
A. Procurement audit
B. Lessons learned
C. Performance reporting
D. Payment requests
Question # 61
What is the definition of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
A. Integrating all planned activities
B. Performing the activities included in the plan
C. Developing and maintaining the plan
D. Execution of deliverables
Question # 62
Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
A. Develop Project Management Plan, Collect Requirements, Create WBS
B. Develop Project Management Plan, Control Scope, Develop Schedule
C. Develop Project Charter, Define Scope, Estimate Costs
D. Develop Project Charter, Direct and Manage Project Execution, Close Project or Phase
Question # 63
Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
A. Staffing level is highest at the start.
B. The stakeholders' influence is highest at the start.
C. The level of uncertainty is lowest at the start.
D. The cost of changes is highest at the start.
Question # 64
What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?
A. Scope
B. Quality
C. Specification
D. Grade
Question # 65
Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
A. Build vs. buy
B. Expert judgment
C. Alternatives identification
D. Product analysis
Question # 66
Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Parametric estimating
B. Monte Carlo analysis
C. Alternatives analysis
D. Bottom-up estimating
Question # 67
Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
A. Transference
B. Avoidance
C. Exploring
D. Mitigation
Question # 68
Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
A. Functional managers and manager of project managers
B. Functional managers only
C. Project managers only
D. Technical managers and project managers
Question # 69
The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:
A. Define Activities.
B. Sequence Activities.
C. Define Scope.
D. Control Schedule.
Question # 70
The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Executing
Question # 71
To which process is work performance information an input?
A. Administer Procurements
B. Direct and Manage Project Execution
C. Create WBS
D. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
Question # 72
During which process group is the quality policy determined?
A. Initiating
B. Executing
C. Planning
D. Controlling
Question # 73
The Verify Scope process is primarily concerned with:
A. formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables.
B. accuracy of the work deliverables.
C. formalizing approval of the scope statement.
D. accuracy of the work breakdown structure (WBS).
Question # 74
Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:
A. quality audits
B. process analysis
C. statistical sampling
D. benchmarking
Question # 75
An input of the Control Schedule process is the:
A. resource calendar.
B. activity list.
C. risk management plan.
D. organizational process assets.
Question # 76
The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Project Management
Question # 77
Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Resource availability
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Team performance assessment
Question # 78
The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
A. negotiation
B. organizational theory
C. meeting
D. networking
Question # 79
What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
A. 0.45
B. 0.56
C. 0.70
D. 1.36
Question # 80
Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?
A. Bottom-up
B. Three-point
C. Parametric
D. Analogous
Question # 81
Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
A. An organizational chart
B. Glossary of common terminology
C. Organizational process assets
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Question # 82
As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost. What should be used to calculate the forecast?
A. BAC
B. EAC
C. ETC
D. WBS
Question # 83
Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
A. Schedule
B. Checklist
C. Assumption
D. Cost-Benefit
Question # 84
Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?
A. Project management information system
B. Work performance information
C. Work breakdown structure
D. Variance analysis
Question # 85
Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?
A. Product
B. Cost-benefit
C. Stakeholder
D. Research
Question # 86
What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. Resource breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
D. Project breakdown structure (PBS)
Question # 87
Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?
A. It includes letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes.
B. It requires recipients to access communication content at their own discretion.
C. It is the most efficient way to ensure a common understanding among all participants.
D. It is primarily used when the volume of information to be transferred is minimal.
Question # 88
Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
A. Mitigate
B. Transfer
C. Share
D. Avoid
Question # 89
Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?
A. The customer and functional managers
B. The risk owners and stakeholders
C. The sponsors and stakeholders
D. The project management team
Question # 90
Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
A. Project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. Scope management plan
D. Project document updates
Question # 91
When is a project finished?
A. After verbal acceptance of the customer or sponsor
B. After lessons learned have been documented in contract closure
C. When the project objectives have been met
D. After resources have been released
Question # 92
Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?
A. Coaching
B. Avoidance
C. Consensus
D. Influencing
Question # 93
The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?
A. Push
B. Pull
C. Interactive
D. Iterative
Question # 94
A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:
A. To the project management plan.
B. To the risk register.
C. In the scope verification processes.
D. And their impact to the project in terms of time, cost, and risk.
Question # 95
A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:
A. plan
B. process
C. program
D. portfolio
Question # 96
What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
A. Risk register
B. Risk breakdown structure (RBS)
C. Risk management plan
D. Risk category
Question # 97
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests
B. work performance information and change requests
C. project management plan updates and work performance information
D. issue logs and organizational process assets updates
Question # 98
A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:
A. budget at completion (BAC)
B. earned value management (EVM)
C. to-complete performance index
D. cost performance index
Question # 99
Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
A. Responsibility assignment matrix (RAM)
B. Work breakdown structure (WBS) update
C. Project schedule network diagram
D. Mandatory dependencies list
Question # 100
Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
A. Critical path method
B. Variance analysis
C. Schedule compression
D. Schedule comparison bar charts
Question # 101
Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
A. Resource breakdown structure
B. Staffing management plan
C. Project organizational chart
D. Scope management plan
Question # 102
An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:
A. structure.
B. process asset.
C. matrix.
D. breakdown structure.
Question # 103
Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
A. Root cause analysis.
B. Risk probability and impact assessment.
C. Expert judgment.
D. Revised stakeholders' tolerances.
Question # 104
The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
A. Validate Scope.
B. Close Project or Phase.
C. Control Quality.
D. Verify Scope.
Question # 105
Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:
A. Identifying quality standards that are relevant to the project and determining how to satisfy them.
B. Monitoring and recording the results of executing the quality activities to assess performance and recommend necessary changes.
C. Ensuring that the entire project team has been adequately trained in quality assurance processes.
D. Applying Monte Carlo, sampling, Pareto analysis, and benchmarking techniques to ensure conformance to quality standards.
Question # 106
Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
A. Develop Project Management Plan
B. Develop Project Charter
C. Direct and Manage Project Execution
D. Collect Requirements
Question # 107
An output of Control Schedule is:
A. A project schedule network diagram
B. A schedule management plan
C. Schedule data
D. Schedule forecasts
Question # 108
What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Enterprise environmental factors
C. Project management processes
D. Project scope management plan
Question # 109
The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500.What is the actual cost of the project?
A. US$158,700
B. US$172,500
C. US$187,500
D. US$245,600
Question # 110
The stakeholder register is an output of:
A. Identify Stakeholders.
B. Plan Stakeholder Management.
C. Control Stakeholder Engagement.
D. Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
Question # 111
Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
A. Organizational standard processes
B. Marketplace conditions
C. Historical information
D. Templates
Question # 112
The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:
A. Supportive
B. Leading
C. Neutral
D. Resistant
Question # 113
Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
A. The Delphi technique
B. Nominal group technique
C. Affinity diagram
D. Brainstorming
Question # 114
In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
A. Functional manager
B. Project manager
C. Program manager
D. Project management office
Question # 115
Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?
A. Cost management plan
B. Quality management plan
C. Communications management plan
D. Risk management plan
Question # 116
What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
A. Decomposition
B. Benchmarking
C. Inspection
D. Checklist analysis
Question # 117
What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
A. Pareto
B. Ishikawa
C. Shewhart-Deming
D. Delphi
Question # 118
Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?
A. Critical path method
B. Rolling wave planning
C. Precedence diagramming method
D. Parametric estimating
Question # 119
Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
A. Sensitivity analysis
B. Probability and impact matrix
C. Risk data quality assessment
D. Risk categorization
Question # 120
Which process includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Plan Risk Management
D. Plan Risk Responses
Question # 121
A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?
A. -700
B. -200
C. 200
D. 500
Question # 122
Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?
A. Portfolio
B. Project
C. Program
D. Operations
Question # 123
Organizations perceive risks as:
A. events that will inevitably impact project and organizational objectives.
B. the effect of uncertainty on their project and organizational objectives.
C. events which could have a negative impact on project and organizational objectives.
Question # 124
What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
A. Decrease the probability and impact of an event on project objectives.
B. Distinguish between a project risk and a project issue so that a risk mitigation plan can be put in place.
C. Increase the probability and impact of positive events.
D. Removal of project risk.
Question # 125
Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Estimate Activity Resources
C. Control Costs
D. Determine Budget
Question # 126
An input to the Create WBS process is a:
A. project charter.
B. stakeholder register.
C. project scope statement.
D. requirements traceability matrix.
Question # 127
Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?
A. Conduct periodic project performance reviews.
B. Identify quality project standards.
C. Follow ISO 9000 quality standards.
D. Complete the quality control checklist.
Question # 128
The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
A. objectives
B. schedule
C. product
D. approach
Question # 129
What is the difference between the critical path and the critical chain?
A. Scope changes
B. Resource limitations
C. Risk analysis
D. Quality audits
Question # 130
Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
A. Templates, forms, and standards
B. Change requests
C. Product analysis
D. Project assumptions
Question # 131
Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:
A. Product performance.
B. Budget process.
C. Collective capabilities.
D. Organizational strategy.
Question # 132
The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
A. start-to-start (SS)
B. start-to-finish (SF)
C. finish-to-start (FS)
D. finish-to-finish (FF)
Question # 133
Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
A. Crashing
B. Fast tracking
C. Leads and lags adjustment
D. Parallel task development
Question # 134
What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
A. Feelings of trust and improved cohesiveness
B. Ground rules for interaction
C. Enhanced resource availability
D. Functional managers becoming more involved
Question # 135
The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:
A. sponsor
B. customer
C. business partners
D. functional managers
Question # 136
The product scope description is used to:
A. Gain stakeholders' support for the project.
B. Progressively elaborate the characteristics of the product, service, or result.
C. Describe the project in great detail.
D. Define the process and criteria for accepting a completed product, service, or result.
Question # 137
Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
A. Control Costs
B. Determine Budget
C. Estimate Costs
C. Estimate Costs
Question # 138
A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
A. Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages.
B. Central coordination of communication management across projects.
C. Assignment of project resources to best meet project objectives.
D. Overall risk, overall opportunity, and interdependencies among projects at the enterprise level.
Question # 139
What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
A. Sole-sum
B. Win-lose
C. Lose-win
D. Partial-sum
Question # 140
The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:
A. Plan Procurements.
B. Control Procurements.
C. Close Procurements.
D. Conduct Procurements.
Question # 141
The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
A. Intuitive
B. Iterative
C. Measured
D. Monitored
Question # 142
When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
A. Before constraints have been identified
B. Before it has been analyzed by the critical path method
C. After it has been analyzed by the critical path method
D. After critical activities have been removed from the critical path
Question # 143
Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associatedWBSand WBS dictionary?
A. Scope plan
B. Product scope
C. Scope management plan
D. Scope baseline
Question # 144
Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
B. Variance analysis
C. Reserve analysis
D. Stakeholder analysis
Question # 145
Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Organizational breakdown structure
C. Resource breakdown structure
D. Bill of materials
Question # 146
Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
A. Project stakeholders
B. Project sponsor and project stakeholder
C. Project manager and project team
D. Project manager and project sponsor
Question # 147
Most experienced project managers know that:
A. every project requires the use of all processes in the PMBOK® Guide.
B. there is no single way to manage a project.
C. project management techniques are risk free.
D. there is only one way to manage projects successfully.
Question # 148
Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
A. Risk register
B. Risk audits
C. Risk urgency assessment
D. Risk probability and impact assessment
Question # 149
What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
A. 7
B. 8
C. 14
D. 16
Question # 150
An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known as:
A. Forecasting,
B. Brainstorming.
C. Historical databases.
D. Cost of quality.
Question # 151
The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
A. recognition and rewards
B. compliance
C. staff acquisition
D. training needs
Question # 152
Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:
A. Level of control.
B. Communication channels.
C. Scope.
D. Strategic alignment.
Question # 153
Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
A. Balanced matrix
B. Projectized
C. Strong matrix
D. Functional
Question # 154
Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
A. Uniform
B. Continuous
C. Discrete
D. Linear
Question # 155
The following is a network diagram for a project.What is the critical path for the project?
A. A-B-C-F-G-I
B. A-B-C-F-H-I
C. A-D-E-F-G-I
D. A-D-E-F-H-I
Question # 156
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?
A. 0.8
B. 1
C. 1.25
D. 1.8
Question # 157
Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
A. Consultants and stakeholders
B. Stakeholders and functional managers
C. Project team members and consultants
D. Project team members and stakeholders
Question # 158
Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?
A. Functional managers
B. Business partners
C. Customers or sponsors
D. Subject matter experts
Question # 159
What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?
A. 0.03
B. 0.06
C. 0.10
D. 0.50
Question # 160
Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
A. Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
B. Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
C. Control Risks
D. Plan Risk Responses
Question # 161
Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
A. Smooth/accommodate
B. Withdraw/avoid
C. Compromise/reconcile
D. Force/direct
Question # 162
The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:
A. Earned value management.
B. Forecasting.
C. Critical chain methodology.
D. Critical path methodology.
Question # 163
In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:
A. Estimating
B. Scheduling
C. Controlling
D. Communicating
Question # 164
The following is a network diagram for a project.The total float for the project is how many days?
A. 5
B. 9
C. 12
D. 14
Question # 165
Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (VVBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
A. Activity network diagrams
B. Affinity diagrams
C. Matrix diagrams
D. Interrelationship digraphs
Question # 166
Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
A. Process analysis and expert judgment
B. Analytical techniques and a project management information system
C. Performance reviews and meetings
D. Expert judgment and meetings
Question # 167
Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
A. Estimate Activity Resources
B. Sequence Activities
C. Estimate Activity Durations
D. Develop Schedule
Question # 168
Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?
A. Business case
B. Work breakdown structure
C. Requirements documentation
D. Risk register
Question # 169
Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Question # 170
Which type of graphic is displayed below?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Context diagram
C. Control chart
D. Pareto diagram
Question # 171
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?
A. -2,000
B. 0
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
Question # 172
The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected: Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?
A. 0.8
B. 0.89
C. 1.13
D. 1.25
Question # 173
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
A. Networking
B. Training
C. Negotiation
D. Issue log
Question # 174
The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:
A. work breakdown structure (WBS).
B. schedule target.
C. performance measurement baseline (PMB).
D. earned value baseline.
Question # 175
Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
A. Recognized by every project manager
B. Constantly evolving
C. The sum of all knowledge related to project management
D. A sum of knowledge that should be applied on every project
Question # 176
At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
A. low, peak as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
B. low, become steady as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
C. high, drop as work is carried out, and increase as the project nears the end.
D. high, become low as work is carried out, and drop as the project nears the end.
Question # 177
Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
A. External
B. Lead
Discretionary
D. Mandatory
Question # 178
Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
A. Project statement of work
B. Selected sellers
C. Risk register updates
D. Teaming agreements
Question # 179
In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
A. Within a work package.
B. In each phase of the project.
C. To estimate schedule constraints.
D. To estimate resource allocations.
Question # 180
The staffing management plan is part of the:
A. organizational process assets.
B. resource calendar.
C. human resource plan.
D. Develop Project Team process.
Question # 181
At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?
A. Result
B. Product
C. Service
D. Improvement
Question # 182
Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
A. Cost Plus Fixed Fee Contract (CPFF)
B. Cost Plus Incentive Fee Contract (CPIF)
C. Firm Fixed Price Contract (FFP)
D. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustment Contract (FP-EPA)
Question # 183
Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
A. Create WBS.
B. complete project work.
C. calculate costs.
D. Develop Project Management Plan.
Question # 184
Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
A. Change control
B. Configuration control
C. Project monitoring and control
D. Issue control
Question # 185
Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?
A. Variance analysis
B. Three-point estimating
C. Bottom-up estimating
D. Historical relationships
Question # 186
Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
A. Accuracy
B. Precision
C. Grade
D. Quality
Question # 187
A project lifecycle is defined as:
A. a collection of generally sequential and sometimes overlapping project phases.
B. a process required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the
work required, to complete the project successfully.
C. a recognized standard for the project management profession.
D. the application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet the
project requirements.
Question # 188
In project management, a temporary project can be:
A. Completed without planning
B. A routine business process
C. Long in duration
D. Ongoing to produce goods
Question # 189
Which process requires implementation of approved changes?
A. Direct and Manage Project Execution
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Perform Integrated Change Control
D. Close Project or Phase
Question # 190
The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is
A. Define Activities.
B. Create WBS.
C. Define Scope.
D. Develop Schedule.
Question # 191
Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
A. Control Quality
B. Monitor and Control Project Work
C. Control Scope
D. Perform Integrated Change Control
Question # 192
At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Norming
D. Performing
Question # 193
Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
A. expert judgment and change requests.
B. work performance information and change requests.
C. organizational process asset updates and an issue log.
D. project management plan updates and an issue log.
Question # 194
Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
A. Performance measure
B. Baseline schedule
C. Schedule network analysis
D. Variance analysis
Question # 195
Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
A. Verified deliverables.
B. Validated deliverables.
C. Acceptance criteria.
D. Activity resource requirements.
Question # 196
The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they
A. operate separately.
B. move together in batches,
C. overlap and interact.
D. move in a sequence
Question # 197
Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
A. Identify how the project costs will be planned, structured, and controlled
B. Determine policies, objectives, and responsibilities to satisfy stakeholder needs
C. Develop an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities
D. Monitor cost performance to isolate and understand variances from the approved cost baseline
Question # 198
Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?
A. Corrective action
B. Defect repair
C. Preventative action
D. Probable action
Question # 199
The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
A. assumption log.
B. quality checklist.
C. risk register.
D. contract type.Answer: D
Question # 200
Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?
A. Estimate Costs
B. Control Costs
C. Plan Cost Management
D. Determine Budget
Question # 201
Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?
A. Accepted deliverables
B. Organizational process assets updates
C. Managing stakeholder expectations
D. Performance reports
Question # 202
One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
A. outlines team selection guidelines and team member responsibilities.
B. establishes project roles and responsibilities.
C. improves teamwork, interpersonal skills, and competencies.
D. provides an accurate appraisal of team member performance.
Question # 203
Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
A. Project management knowledge, performance skills, and personal effectiveness
B. Preparedness, project management knowledge, and personality characteristics
C. General management, preparedness, and project management knowledge
D. Assertiveness, collaboration, and performance skills
Question # 204
Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?
A. Ishikawa diagram
B. Control chart
C. Run chart
D. Pareto chart
Question # 205
The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
A. management
B. response
C. tolerance
D. appetite
Question # 206
Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
A. project documents updates.
B. project management plan updates.
C. change requests.
D. work performance information.
Question # 207
A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?
A. Formal
B. Informal r
C. Horizontal
D. Unofficial
Question # 208
A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
A. cultural differences of team members
B. possibility of communication misunderstandings
C. costs associated with travel
D. costs associated with technology
Question # 209
Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
A. Procurement documents
B. Inspection and audits
C. Estimate budget
D. Risk register
Question # 210
In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?
A. Technical approach
B. Technical capability
C. Business size and type
D. Production capacity and interest
Question # 211
Which of the following can be used as an input for Define Scope?
A. Product analysis
B. Project charter
C. Scope baseline
D. Project scope statement
Question # 212
A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
A. Work breakdown structure
B. Requirements document
C. Project charter
D. Project management plan
Question # 213
An input of the Create WBS process is:
A. requirements documentation.
B. scope baseline.
C. project charter.
D. validated deliverables.
Question # 214
Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?
A. Budget estimates
B. Risk matrix
C. Requirements documentation
D. Procurement documents
Question # 215
In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
A. Firm-Fixed-Price (FFP)
B. Fixed Price with Economic Price Adjustments (FP-EPA)
C. Fixed-Price-Incentive-Fee (FPIF)
D. Cost Plus Fixed Fee (CPFF)
Question # 216
For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
A. Monitor the stakeholder.
B. Manage the stakeholder closely.
C. Keep the stakeholder satisfied.
D. Keep the stakeholder informed.
Question # 217
Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?
A. Initiating
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
Question # 218
Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?
A. Scope baseline, cost baseline, and schedule baseline
B. Scope baseline, project management baseline, and quality baseline
C. Cost baseline, schedule baseline, and risk baseline
D. Cost baseline, project management baseline, and schedule baseline
Question # 219
A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
A. a Knowledge Area
B. a Process Group
C. program management
D. portfolio management
Question # 220
What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Stays the same
D. Has no bearing
Question # 221
Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
A. Work performance reports
B. Accepted deliverables
C. Project management plan updates
D. Organizational process assets
Question # 222
The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
A. majority rule technique.
B. nominal group technique.
C. Delphi technique,
D. idea/mind mapping technique.
Question # 223
Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
A. enterprise environmental factors
B. organizational process assets
C. the project management plan
D. the stakeholder register
Question # 224
Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:
A. manager.
B. success.
C. deadline.
D. scope.
Question # 225
Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
A. Communication methods
B. Information technology
C. Communication models
D. Information management systems
Question # 226
Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?
A. Project management plan
B. Activity resource requirements
C. Resource calendar
D. Project staff assignments
Question # 227
The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?
A. -2,000
B. -1,000
C. 1,000
D. 2,000
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