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CompTIA 220-1101 Exam Overview:
Detail
Information
Exam Code
CompTIA 220-1101
Exam Title
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam
Exam Cost
Check CompTIA website for current pricing
Total Time
90 minutes
Available Languages
English, Japanese
Passing Marks
675 on a scale of 100-900
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Topics Breakdown
Domain
Percentage
Mobile Devices
14%
Networking
20%
Hardware
27%
Virtualization and Cloud Computing
12%
Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
27%
COMPTIA A+: LAUNCHING IT CARRIERS TO THE CURRENT DIGITAL LANDSCAPE
What is CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101)?
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) is an early-career IT support technician certification covering the theory and technical skills required to support computer hardware, mobile devices, networks, virtualization, and cloud computing environments.
The CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) certification is a vendor-neutral certification that validates your knowledge and ability to conduct install, configure, and troubleshoot hardware issues in your organization. This certification tests your ability to think on your feet while performing critical IT support functions. The CompTIA A+ certification is designed for early-career data analysts with the equivalent of 9-12 months of on-the-job knowledge.
Would earning a CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) certification help me advance in my career?
With over 1.2 million IT-certified professionals holding this certification, it's no wonder that CompTIA A+ is viewed as the industry standard for entry-level positions. Not only is CompTIA A+ (Core 1 and Core 2) widely recognized in the IT field, but companies like HP, Dell, and Intel require their technicians to have this certification.
Exam domain breakdown for CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101)
An exam schedule is provided by the domain goals. You can confirm that you are ready to take the test by keeping track of your progress through the content using the Domain Objectives. Each of the stated objectives should be very recognizable to a test candidate.
DOMAIN 1.0 Mobile Devices. 15%
DOMAIN 2.0 Networking. 20%
DOMAIN 3.0 Hardware. 25%
DOMAIN 4.0 Virtualization and Cloud Computing. 11%
DOMAIN 5.0 Hardware and Network Troubleshooting. 29%
What kind of hand on experience is needed for this certification?
Those who want to get the CompTIA A+ certification need to be knowledgeable about the most recent developments in IT infrastructure and technology. A CompTIA A+ certification demonstrates to employers that members of their IT teams or prospective employees have the most recent knowledge and expertise, which is important because the IT landscape is always changing.
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) passing Criteria
CompTIA A+ 220-1001 (Core 1): Minimum of 675 out of 900 to pass
Your score is determined on how many questions you successfully answer. Every question has a certain weight, and the points you receive for each right response go toward determining your ultimate score. The precise point value and weighting scheme allocated to each question are not made available by CompTIA. It is reasonable to assume, though, that a question's point value increases with its complexity.
Study resources that helps to pass this exam
• Guided Training Courses: Regarding obtaining IT certifications, training programs like the New Horizons CompTIA A+ are the closest substitute for practical experience. For acquiring the foundational information and abilities required for success on the examinations and in the industry, the CompTIA A+ course is a great resource.
• Study Guides: There are many study guides available, but the CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Certification from Dumpspool.com is all you need to pass this exam. The 220-1101 pdf guide is considered to be one of the best exam study guides for the CompTIA A+ exams.
• Online Resources: Great and intelligent discussions regarding IT ideas and guidance for those who plan to take or have already taken the CompTIA A+ tests may be found on Reddit and the online CompTIA forums. Every day, people from all around the world update these online communities and share their experiences.
• Taking a nap and relaxing: Get enough sleep the night before your exam and have a nutritious meal to start the day. To give yourself enough time to check in and settle down before your test, it's also a good idea to get to your testing location or connect to your computer early.
Frequently Asked Questions
CompTIA 220-1101 Sample Question Answers
Question # 1
A user added a heater underneath a desk, and now an external monitor is not working. Atechnician verified the monitor gets power. Which of the following should the technician donext?
A. Have the user unplug the heater. B. Replace the monitor. C. Open the display settings on the computer. D. Ensure a VGA cable is connected properly.
Answer: A
Explanation: The next step that the technician should do is to have the user unplug the
heater. This is because the heater may be causing electromagnetic interference (EMI) or
radio frequency interference (RFI) that affects the signal transmission between the
computer and the monitor. EMI and RFI are types of noise or distortion that can degrade
the quality or integrity of data signals, especially in analog connections such as VGA. EMI
and RFI can be generated by various sources, such as power lines, motors, fans, heaters,
microwaves, radios, or cell phones. EMI and RFI can cause various symptoms on the
monitor, such as flickering, ghosting, blurring, color shifting, or no display at all.
To troubleshoot EMI and RFI issues, the technician should follow these steps:
Identify the source of the interference. In this case, the heater is the most likely
culprit, as it was added recently and is located close to the monitor or the cable.
Eliminate or reduce the interference. The technician should have the user unplug
the heater or move it away from the monitor or the cable. The technician should
also check if there are any other potential sources of interference nearby and
remove or relocate them if possible.
Test the monitor. The technician should verify if the monitor is working properly
after unplugging or moving the heater. If the monitor is still not working, the
technician should try other troubleshooting steps, such as checking the display
settings on the computer, ensuring the VGA cable is connected properly, or
replacing the monitor.
References:
How to Fix Monitor Flickering - CCM1
How to Fix a Flickering Laptop Screen - Lifewire2
How to Fix a Flickering Monitor - Techwalla3
How to Troubleshoot Display or Video Issues on a Monitor4
How to Troubleshoot a Monitor That Won’t Turn On - Lifewire5
Question # 2
Which of the following is the most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a softwaredeveloper?
A. Increasing the application performance B. Enhancing the security of physical machines C. Reducing the operational costs D. Testing on different operating systems
Answer: D
Explanation: The most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a software developer
is D. Testing on different operating systems.
Client-side virtualization is a type of virtualization that allows a single physical machine,
such as a laptop or a desktop, to run multiple virtual machines, each with its own operating
system and applications. Client-side virtualization can provide several benefits, such as:
Increasing the application performance by allocating more resources to the virtual
machine that runs the application.
Enhancing the security of physical machines by isolating the virtual machines from
each other and from the host machine, and preventing malware or attacks from
spreading or affecting the data.
Reducing the operational costs by consolidating multiple physical machines into
one, and saving on hardware, software, and energy expenses.
However, the most likely use case for client-side virtualization for a software developer is
testing on different operating systems. This means that a software developer can use
client-side virtualization to create and run different virtual machines with different operating
systems, such as Windows, Linux, or Mac OS, and test how their software works and
performs on each of them. This can help the software developer to ensure the
compatibility, functionality, and quality of their software across different platforms and
environments. It can also help the software developer to debug and fix any issues or errors
that may arise on different operating systems.
For more information about client-side virtualization and its use cases, you can refer to the
following web search results: [What Is Client-Side Virtualization?], [Client-Side
Virtualization: Benefits and Challenges], [How Client-Side Virtualization Can Help
Developers].
Question # 3
A customer reports a network connectivity issue. A technician discovers that LAN portshave been damaged during remodeling. Which of the following tools should the technicianuse to fix the issue?
A. Cable stripper B. Punchdown tool C. Crimper D. Network tap
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Punchdown tool.
A punchdown tool is a device that can connect wires to a patch panel or a network jack by
inserting them into the appropriate slots and cutting off the excess. A punchdown tool can
be used to fix the damaged LAN ports by replacing the wires or reconnecting them to the
correct terminals.
A cable stripper is a device that can remove the insulation from a cable to expose the wires
inside. A cable stripper is not useful for fixing the damaged LAN ports, unless the
technician needs to strip new wires before punching them down.
A crimper is a device that can attach connectors to the ends of cables, such as RJ-45 or
RJ-11. A crimper is not useful for fixing the damaged LAN ports, unless the technician
needs to replace the connectors on the cables.
A network tap is a device that can monitor and capture network traffic by creating a copy of
the data passing through a network link. A network tap is not useful for fixing the damaged
LAN ports, as it does not affect the connectivity of the network devices.
A network technician needs to connect into the console of a switch. Which of the followingconnection types should the technician most likely utilize?
A. Serial interface B. Bluetooth C. Near-field communication D. Port replicator
Answer: A
Explanation:
A serial interface is a common way to connect to the console port of a switch using a rollover cable and a terminal emulator program. This allows the network technician to
configure and troubleshoot the switch. Bluetooth, near-field communication, and port
A technician is selecting RAM for a new high-end workstation. The motherboard has eightslots that support DDR5 memory. Which of the following should the technician do tooptimize performance?
A. Use the minimum number of modules. B. Increase the virtual RAM. C. Increase memory timings. D. Utilize all channels.
Answer: D
Explanation: The best option that the technician should do to optimize performance is D.
Utilize all channels. This option means that the technician should install the RAM modules
in a way that maximizes the number of memory channels that are used by the
motherboard. Memory channels are pathways that connect the memory controller to the
RAM modules, and they allow data to be transferred between them. The more memory
channels that are used, the higher the memory bandwidth and performance1.
DDR5 memory supports up to eight memory channels per module, which is twice as many
as DDR42. However, not all motherboards can support eight channels per module, and
some may only support four or two channels per module. Therefore, the technician should
check the motherboard specifications and manual to determine how many memory
channels it supports and how to install the RAM modules accordingly.
For example, if the motherboard supports four channels per module, then the technician
should install four RAM modules in slots 1, 3, 5, and 7 to use all 16 available channels. If
the motherboard supports two channels per module, then the technician should install eight
RAM modules in all slots to use all 16 available channels. If the technician installs fewer
modules than the number of slots, then some channels will be left unused and the
performance will be lower1.
Question # 6
A company recently enabled two-factor authentication in order to enhance security. Usersshould be prompted for two-factor authentication when working outside of the office, butare also being prompted when connecting to the office Wi-Fi. Which ofthe following should the technician do?
A. Leave the current rules in place and disable Wi-Fi on all devices. B. Implement allow listing and add the office IP address as an exception. C. Remove two-factor authentication from the users' accounts. D. Substitute hard tokens in place of soft tokens.
Answer: B
Explanation: Allow listing is a security technique that allows only specific IP addresses or
domains to access a network or a service. By adding the office IP address as an exception,
the company can prevent two-factor authentication from being triggered when users are
connected to the office Wi-Fi, since the office network is considered trusted. This way,
users will only be prompted for two-factor authentication when working outside of the office,
which enhances security.
References: The following web search results provide more information about allow listing
and two-factor authentication:
What Is Two-Factor Authentication (2FA)? | Microsoft Security: This article explains the
concept of two-factor authentication, its benefits, and its methods.
Change your two-step verification method and settings - Microsoft Support: This article
shows how to manage your security verification methods and settings for your work or
school account, including how to turn on two-factor verification prompts on a trusted device.
2FA Directory: This website lists all the sites that support two-factor authentication, and the
methods they use.
Question # 7
A user reports a workstation is having the following issues:· OS performance is slow. The workstation turns off randomly from time to time. The fans are running loudlyWhich of the following is most likely the cause?
A. The system is infected with malware. B. The CPU is overheating. C. The hard drive is failing. D. The power supply is insufficient.
Answer: B
Explanation: One of the possible causes of slow OS performance, random shutdowns,
and loud fan noise is the CPU overheating. This can happen due to dust accumulation,
faulty cooling system, or high CPU usage. Overheating can damage the CPU and other
components, so it is important to monitor the CPU temperature and take preventive
measures.
References:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook1, page 2-9,
section “CPU Cooling Methods”.
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide2, page 2-11, section
“Troubleshooting CPUs”.
Question # 8
A company in a large building uses a wireless network for its workstations. After a newcompany moves into the building on the floor below, the old company's wireless networkbegins experiencing connectivity Issues. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
A. External interference B. Port flapping C. High latency D. Limited connectivity
Answer: A
Explanation: The most likely cause of the wireless network connectivity issues is A.
External interference.
External interference is any signal or noise that disrupts or degrades the quality of a
wireless network. External interference can come from various sources, such as other
wireless networks, cordless phones, microwaves, Bluetooth devices, or electrical
appliances. External interference can affect the wireless network performance, reliability,
and security, by causing issues such as signal loss, packet drops, latency, or interference.
In this scenario, a company in a large building uses a wireless network for its workstations.
After a new company moves into the building on the floor below, the old company’s
wireless network begins experiencing connectivity issues. This could indicate that the new
company’s wireless network is using the same or overlapping frequency channel as the old
company’s wireless network, and creating external interference. Wireless networks use
radio frequency channels to transmit and receive data, and each channel has a certain
bandwidth and range. If two or more wireless networks use the same or overlapping
channel, they may interfere with each other and cause congestion or collision.
To resolve this issue, the old company’s network technician should change the wireless
network channel to a different one that is less crowded or more compatible with the
wireless network standard. The technician should also check the wireless network settings
and features, such as SSID (Service Set Identifier), encryption, authentication, or power
level, and adjust them if necessary. The technician should also scan the wireless
environment and identify the sources and levels of external interference, and try to avoid or
minimize them if possible.
For more information about external interference and how to prevent or reduce it, you can
refer to the following web search results: [What Is Wireless Interference?], [How to Find the
Best WiFi Channel for Your Router], [How to Reduce Wireless Interference].
Question # 9
A technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a laptop that has twooccupied slots_ When the technician tries to tum on the laptop, the computer startsbeeping and does not pass POST The technician double-checks the newly installed RAMand notices a motherboard message indicating low voltage. Which of the following is themost likely cause of this Issue?
A. Faulty power adapter B. Incorrect BIOS settings C. Failing CMOS battery' D. Unsupported memory
Answer: D
Explanation: Memory modules are physical components that store data and instructions
for the computer to access and process. Memory modules have different specifications and
features, such as type, speed, capacity, voltage, and form factor. These specifications and
features must be compatible with the motherboard and the processor of the computer,
otherwise the memory modules may not work properly or cause errors.
In this scenario, the technician is working to replace a single DDR3 RAM module on a
laptop that has two occupied slots. DDR3 stands for Double Data Rate 3, and it is a type of
memory technology that offers faster performance and lower power consumption than its
predecessors. DDR3 RAM modules have different variants, such as DDR3L, DDR3U, or
DDR3R, which have different voltage requirements. For example, DDR3L operates at
1.35V, DDR3U operates at 1.25V, and DDR3R operates at 1.5V.
When the technician tries to turn on the laptop, the computer starts beeping and does not
pass POST. POST stands for Power-On Self-Test, and it is a process that checks the
hardware components and functionality of the computer before loading the operating
system. If POST detects an error or a failure, it may produce a series of beeps or codes to
indicate the problem. The number and pattern of beeps or codes may vary depending on
the manufacturer or model of the computer.
The technician double-checks the newly installed RAM and notices a motherboard
message indicating low voltage. This means that the motherboard is not receiving enough
power from the memory module to operate normally. This could indicate that the memory
module is not compatible with the motherboard or the processor, or that it is defective or
damaged. The most likely cause of this issue is that the technician installed an
unsupported memory module that has a lower voltage than what the motherboard or the
processor requires.
To resolve this issue, the technician should remove the newly installed RAM module and
replace it with a compatible one that has the same voltage as the existing ones. The
technician should also check the specifications and features of the motherboard and the
processor to ensure that they support the type, speed, capacity, and form factor of the
memory modules. The technician should also follow proper safety precautions when
handling memory modules, such as wearing an anti-static wrist strap, avoiding physical
damage or static discharge, and aligning the notches correctly.
Question # 10
A technician is working with a vendor to resolve an issue that a user reported. The vendorindicates that the technician's next step is to update the firmware. Which of the following isthe most important step the technician should take before proceeding?
A. Verify the device is fully charged and connected to a power supply. B. Ensure the device has adequate storage space for the update. C. Verify administrative access on the device. D. Export the users settings so they can be imported after the upgrade
Answer: A
Explanation: The most important step the technician should take before proceeding is A.
Verify the device is fully charged and connected to a power supply. Firmware is a type of software that controls the basic functions and operations of a device,
such as a router, printer, or scanner. Firmware can be updated to fix bugs, improve
performance, or add new features to the device. However, updating firmware can also be
risky, as it may cause the device to malfunction or become unusable if the update process
is interrupted or corrupted.
One of the main causes of firmware update failure is power loss, which can occur if the
device runs out of battery or is disconnected from the power source during the update.
Power loss can damage the firmware and prevent the device from booting up or functioning
properly. Therefore, it is essential to verify that the device is fully charged and connected to
a power supply before updating the firmware. This can ensure that the device has enough
power to complete the update process and avoid any interruptions or errors.
The other options are not as important as verifying the power status of the device. Ensuring
the device has adequate storage space for the update is a good practice, but it is not likely
to cause a major problem if the device does not have enough space. The update process
will either fail to start or prompt the user to free up some space before proceeding.
Verifying administrative access on the device is also a good practice, but it is not necessary
for updating firmware. Administrative access is required for installing or uninstalling
software applications, but not for updating firmware. Firmware updates are usually provided
by the device manufacturer or vendor and do not require user authentication. Exporting the
user settings so they can be imported after the upgrade is a precautionary measure, but it
is not mandatory for updating firmware. Firmware updates do not usually affect the user
settings or data on the device, unless they are incompatible or corrupted. Exporting the
user settings can help restore them in case of any problems, but it does not prevent them
from occurring.
Question # 11
A technician is troubleshooting Wi-Fi connection issues on a customer's laptop. The laptopconnects but intermittently disconnects. The technician has already confirmed the wirelesscard is properly installed, the router settings are correct, and the wireless signal strength isnormal. Which of the following should the technician investigate next?
A. Firewall settings B. MAC address filter C. Number of connected devices D. Radio frequency
Answer: D
Explanation: The next thing that the technician should investigate is D. Radio frequency.
Radio frequency is the range of electromagnetic waves that are used to transmit wireless
signals. Different devices and networks use different radio frequencies, such as 2.4 GHz or
5 GHz, to communicate with each other. If there are multiple devices or networks using the
same or overlapping radio frequencies, they can interfere with each other and cause Wi-Fi
connection issues, such as intermittent disconnections, slow speeds, or poor quality .
To fix this issue, the technician can try changing the radio frequency or channel of the router or the laptop, to avoid interference from other sources. The technician can also use
a tool such as Wi-Fi Analyzer to scan the nearby wireless networks and find the best
frequency or channel to use. Alternatively, the technician can move the router or the laptop
to a different location, away from potential sources of interference, such as cordless
phones, microwaves, Bluetooth devices, or other routers .
The other options are less likely to be the reason for the issue. Firewall settings are
software configurations that control the network traffic and security of a device. They may
block some websites or applications from accessing the internet, but they should not affect
the Wi-Fi connection itself. MAC address filter is a feature that allows the router to restrict
access to specific devices based on their MAC addresses, which are unique identifiers for
network interfaces. If the MAC address filter is enabled and the laptop’s MAC address is
not on the allowed list, it will not be able to connect to the Wi-Fi network at all, not
intermittently. Number of connected devices is the amount of devices that are using the
same Wi-Fi network at the same time. This may affect the network performance or
bandwidth, but it should not cause intermittent disconnections, unless the network is
overloaded or unstable.
References:
How To Fix WiFi Connection Problems - Help Desk Geek
How to Fix Your WiFi Connection Problems - Lifewire
Wi-Fi Analyzer - Apps on Google Play
Question # 12
Which of the following delivers internet over a copper medium?
A. ONT B. SDN C. DSL D. WISP
Answer: C
Explanation:
The correct answer is C. DSL.
DSL stands for Digital Subscriber Line, which is a technology that delivers internet over a
copper medium, such as a telephone line. DSL uses different frequencies than voice calls,
so it can provide both internet and phone service simultaneously. DSL can offer faster speeds than dial-up, but it depends on the distance from the service provider and the
quality of the copper line .
The other options are not technologies that deliver internet over a copper medium. ONT
stands for Optical Network Terminal, which is a device that converts optical signals from a
fiber optic cable to electrical signals for a copper cable or a wireless router. ONT is used for
fiber-to-the-home (FTTH) internet service, which delivers internet over a fiber optic
medium. SDN stands for Software Defined Networking, which is a technology that allows
network administrators to manage and control network resources and traffic using software
applications. SDN is not related to the physical medium of internet delivery, but rather to
the logical layer of network configuration and optimization. WISP stands for Wireless
Internet Service Provider, which is a company that delivers internet over a wireless
medium, such as radio waves or microwaves. WISP can provide internet access to rural or
remote areas where wired connections are not available or feasible.
Question # 13
A user needs a technician's help connecting a laptop to a projector The projector is old andonly has analog input. Which of the following cable types should the technician use toconnect the laptop to the proJector?
A. HDMI B. RS-232 C. VGA D. DisplayPort
Answer: C
Explanation:
VGA stands for Video Graphics Array, and it is a type of cable that can be used to transmit
analog video signals between devices, such as laptops, monitors, or projectors. VGA
cables have 15 pins arranged in three rows, and they are usually color-coded blue. VGA
cables can support resolutions up to 2048 x 1536 pixels, but they have low quality and
limited color depth compared to modern digital standards such as HDMI or DisplayPort .
A projector is a device that projects an image or a video onto a large surface, such as a
wall or a screen. A projector can have different types of input ports, such as VGA, HDMI,
DVI, or USB. A projector can also have different types of output technologies, such as
LCD, DLP, or LED .
In this scenario, the user needs a technician’s help connecting a laptop to a projector. The
projector is old and only has analog input. This means that the projector can only accept
analog video signals, and not digital ones. Therefore, the technician should use a VGA
cable to connect the laptop to the projector, as it is the most common type of analog video
cable. The technician should also make sure that the laptop and the projector have
compatible VGA ports, and that the laptop’s display settings are adjusted to match the
projector’s resolution and aspect ratio.
Question # 14
An online retailer is working to support increased sales and boost server capacity byinstalling additional servers. Which of the following should be used to ensure each new server will be properly utilized?
A. Virtualization B. DNS C. Clustering D. Load balancer
Answer: A
Explanation: Virtualization is a technology that allows creating multiple virtual machines
(VMs) on a single physical server. Each VM can run its own operating system and
applications, and share the resources of the physical server, such as CPU, memory, disk,
and network1. Virtualization can help improve server utilization and management in several
ways, such as:
•Reducing the number of physical servers needed to run the same workload, which can
lower the costs of hardware, power, cooling, and maintenance1.
•Increasing the flexibility and scalability of the server infrastructure, as VMs can be created,
deleted, moved, or resized on demand without affecting the other VMs or the physical
server1.
•Enhancing the availability and reliability of the server applications, as VMs can be backed
up, restored, or migrated to another physical server in case of failure or maintenance1.
•Improving the security and isolation of the server data, as VMs can be configured with
different levels of access and protection, and separated from each other and the physical
server1.
Question # 15
A technician is designing a new laptop for a local construction company. Companyemployees will move the laptop around frequently and are likely to drop the laptop whileworking. Which of the following drives should the technician install to mitigate for potentialdamage?
A. S.M.A.R.T B. SCSI C. RAID D. Solid-state
Answer: D
Explanation:
Solid-state drives (SSDs) are the best choice for laptops that are likely to drop while
working, as they have no moving parts and are more resistant to shock and vibration than
hard-disk drives (HDDs). SSDs also offer faster performance, lower power consumption,
and less noise and heat than HDDs. SSDs use flash memory chips to store data, unlike
HDDs that use spinning platters and read/write heads. SSDs can be connected to laptops
using various interfaces, such as SATA, PCIe, or NVMe.
The other options are not suitable for this scenario. S.M.A.R.T (Self-Monitoring, Analysis,
and Reporting Technology) is a feature that monitors the health and performance of HDDs
and SSDs, but it does not prevent damage from dropping. SCSI (Small Computer System
Interface) is an interface that connects various devices, such as HDDs, SSDs, scanners,
and printers, to a computer, but it is not commonly used in laptops. RAID (Redundant Array
of Independent Disks) is a system that combines multiple HDDs or SSDs into a single
logical unit, providing redundancy, performance, or both, but it is not feasible or practical to
implement RAID in a laptop.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
The Best SSDs for Upgrading Your Laptop in 2023 | PCMag3
Question # 16
A technician is upgrading the power supply of a workstation that is running multiple GPUsin an SLI configuration. Which of the following cables isneeded to ensure the power supply can support the workstation?
A. 8-pin PCle B. 4-pin Molex C. 4+4-pin ATX12V D. 8-pin ATX12V
Answer: A
Explanation:
The 8-pin PCle power cable is designed to supply power to a graphics card that requires
more power than the PCle slot can provide. A workstation that is running multiple GPUs in
an SLI configuration would need this cable to ensure adequate power delivery and stability.
The other cables are not suitable for this purpose, as they are either meant for the
motherboard (4+4-pin ATX12V and 8-pin ATX12V) or for older devices (4-pin Molex)
Which of the following technologies can be used to harden guest virtual machines?
A. Containerization B. Network isolation C. Resource reservation D. vTPM
Answer: D
Explanation: A virtual Trusted Platform Module (vTPM) is a technology that can be used to
harden guest virtual machines by providing them with a secure cryptographic device. A
vTPM can store encryption keys, certificates, and passwords, and can perform integrity
checks on the guest operating system and applications. A vTPM can also enable features
such as BitLocker and Credential Guard in Windows 10 virtual machines.
A. Containerization is a technology that can be used to isolate applications from the
underlying operating system and hardware resources. Containerization does not directly
harden guest virtual machines, but rather provides a lightweight alternative to virtualization.
B. Network isolation is a technology that can be used to separate network traffic between different virtual machines or groups of virtual machines. Network isolation can help prevent
unauthorized access or attacks on guest virtual machines, but it does not harden them
internally.
C. Resource reservation is a technology that can be used to guarantee a minimum amount
of CPU, memory, disk, or network resources for a virtual machine or a group of virtual
machines. Resource reservation can help improve the performance and availability of
guest virtual machines, but it does not harden them against security threats.
D. vTPM is a technology that can be used to harden guest virtual machines by providing
them with a secure cryptographic device. A vTPM can store encryption keys, certificates,
and passwords, and can perform integrity checks on the guest operating system and
A users wireless laptop stopped working A technician replaced the wireless card, but thewireless range is now limited. Which of the following should the technician perform next?
A. Verify the antenna's connection. B. Switch from a 2 4GHz band to a 5GHz band C. Change the channels of the Wi-Fi card settings. D. Upgrade the wireless driver.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A limited wireless range after replacing the wireless card could indicate that the antenna is
not properly connected to the card, or that the antenna is damaged or obstructed.
According to the web search results, some possible steps to troubleshoot and verify the
antenna’s connection are:
Open the laptop case and locate the wireless card and the antenna wires. Make
sure that the wires are securely attached to the card’s connectors, and that they
are not loose or broken12.
Check the position and orientation of the antenna. Make sure that it is not blocked
by any metal objects, walls, or other sources of interference. Adjust the angle or
location of the antenna if possible to improve the signal strength3.
Replace the antenna with a new one or a compatible one from another device.
Test the wireless range and performance with the new antenna2.
Question # 19
A user's laptop has been slow to respond for the past few days. The user has run a virusscan, deleted temporary files, closed unnecessary programs, and rebooted the laptop, butthe issue persists. Which of the following steps should the technician take next?
A. Perform a RAM upgrade. B. Replace the laptop's hard drive. C. Bench test the laptop. D. Run a firmware update.
Answer: D
Explanation: Firmware is a type of software that controls the hardware components of a
device, such as the motherboard, hard drive, or keyboard. Firmware updates can improve
the performance, stability, and compatibility of the device, as well as fix bugs and security
issues. Running a firmware update can help to resolve the issue of a slow laptop,
especially if the firmware is outdated or corrupted.
Question # 20
A technician is attempting to fix a computer that does not turn on when the power button ispressed Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to troubleshoot theissue?
A. Verify the output voltages from the power supply unit. B. Open the computer cabinet and replace the power button. C. Remove and reconnect all cables that are plugged into the motherboard D. Reseat the power cable and confirm the outlet is providing energy.
Answer: D
Explanation: The first step in troubleshooting a computer that does not turn on when the
power button is pressed is to check if there is any power going to the computer. The
technician should reseat or reconnect the power cable to ensure it is firmly attached to both
ends, and confirm that the outlet or power strip is providing energy by using a multimeter or
another device. This can eliminate any issues with loose or faulty connections or power
sources, and help isolate the problem further. Reference:
A user's brand new phone froze while information was being transferred from the oldphone. When a technician reset the new phone, it functioned properly when a data transferwas not being attempted. When the technician tested the old phone, it did not appear tohave any functionality issues and passed all forms of device testing. Which of the followingis the most likely reason the data transfer failed?
A. The older phone had a different OS version. B. The older phone had a corrupted OS. C. The older phone had different hardware. D. The older phone utilized different wireless protocols.
Answer: D
Explanation: The most likely reason the data transfer failed is D. The older phone utilized different wireless protocols.
Wireless protocols are the standards that devices use to communicate with each other over
a wireless network. Different wireless protocols have different features, such as speed,
range, security, and compatibility. If the older phone and the new phone use different
wireless protocols, they may not be able to transfer data smoothly or at all. For example, if
the older phone uses Wi-Fi Direct and the new phone uses Bluetooth, they may not be able
to connect or recognize each other.
To avoid this problem, you should make sure that both devices support the same wireless
protocol and that they are in range of each other. You can also use a third-party app or
service that can transfer data between different devices, such as Smart Switch1 or Move to
iOS2. These apps can help you transfer data such as contacts, photos, messages, and
more from your old phone to your new phone.
References:
2: Failure of data transfer from android to … - Apple Community
1: Smart Switch Transfer Issues - Samsung Electronics America
Question # 22
A printer is leaving vertical black lines on every print job. A technician runs a test job andsees the same patterned lines. Which of the following should the technician do first toresolve the issue?
A. Replace the toner. B. Contact the vendor. C. Clean the rollers. D. Replace the paper.
Answer: C
Question # 23
A user reports that a display is slow to turn on, and the colors are distorted and discolored.Once the display turns on, it appears to have lines going through the image andintermittently goes blank. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. Incorrect data source B. Incorrect resolution settings C. Physical cabling issues D. Incorrect refresh rate E. Display burn-in
Answer: C
Explanation: Physical cabling issues refer to any problems with the cables or connectors
that connect a display to a computer or a power source. Physical cabling issues can cause
various symptoms, such as slow to turn on, distorted and discolored images, lines going
through the image, and intermittent blank screens. The technician should check the cables
and connectors for any damage, looseness, or interference.
Question # 24
Which of the following scenarios best illustrate a need for VDI? (Select two).
A. An IT engineer who is designing and showcasing organization user experiences formultiple clients B. A company that needs to store IOPB worth of data C. A manufacturing plant that has high turnover D. A bank that has security concerns regarding employee activity E. A payment processor that is planning on implementing virtual currency F. An application developer who needs to configure network settings for an application
Answer: A,D
Explanation: The scenarios that best illustrate a need for VDI are A and D.
VDI can provide several benefits for different use cases, such as:
Enhancing security and compliance by centralizing and encrypting data and
applications on the server, rather than on the endpoint devices. This can prevent
data loss, theft, or leakage, as well as reduce the risk of malware or unauthorized
access. This is especially important for organizations that deal with sensitive or
regulated information, such as banks, healthcare providers, or government
agencies123.
Improving flexibility and mobility by allowing users to access their desktops and
applications from any device, location, or network. This can enable remote work,
bring your own device (BYOD) policies, or disaster recovery scenarios. This is
especially useful for organizations that have distributed or mobile workforce, such
as IT engineers, consultants, or sales representatives123.
Reducing costs and complexity by simplifying the management and maintenance
of desktops and applications. This can lower the hardware, software, and energy
expenses, as well as the IT staff workload. This is especially beneficial for
organizations that have large or diverse desktop environments, such as schools,
call centers, or manufacturing plants123.
Based on these benefits, the scenarios that best illustrate a need for VDI are:
A. An IT engineer who is designing and showcasing organization user experiences
for multiple clients. This scenario requires flexibility and mobility, as the IT
engineer needs to access different desktop environments and applications from
various devices and locations. VDI can enable the IT engineer to create and switch
between multiple virtual desktops on the same server, and to access them from
any client device with an internet connection1.
D. A bank that has security concerns regarding employee activity. This scenario
requires security and compliance, as the bank needs to protect its data and
applications from internal and external threats. VDI can enhance the security of the
bank’s desktop environment by storing and encrypting all data and applications on
the server, rather than on the endpoint devices. VDI can also provide granular
control and monitoring of user access and activity2.
The scenarios that do not illustrate a need for VDI are:
B. A company that needs to store IOPB worth of data. This scenario does not
require VDI, as VDI is not a storage solution but a desktop virtualization solution. VDI can help reduce the storage requirements of endpoint devices by storing data
on the server, but it does not provide storage capacity or performance for largescale
data processing or analysis. The company may need a different type of
cloud service, such as storage as a service (SaaS) or big data as a service
(BDaaS), to store and manage its massive amount of data4.
C. A manufacturing plant that has high turnover. This scenario does not require
VDI, as VDI is not a human resource solution but a desktop virtualization solution.
VDI can help reduce the costs and complexity of managing desktops and
applications for a large number of users, but it does not address the root causes of
high turnover, such as low wages, poor working conditions, or lack of training. The
manufacturing plant may need to improve its human resource policies and
practices to retain its employees.
E. A payment processor that is planning on implementing virtual currency. This
scenario does not require VDI, as VDI is not a payment solution but a desktop
virtualization solution. VDI can help improve the security and flexibility of accessing
desktops and applications over the internet, but it does not provide the functionality
or compatibility for processing virtual currency transactions. The payment
processor may need a different type of cloud service, such as blockchain as a
service (BaaS) or cryptocurrency as a service (CaaS), to implement and manage
its virtual currency platform.
F. An application developer who needs to configure network settings for an
application. This scenario does not require VDI, as VDI is not a development
solution but a desktop virtualization solution. VDI can help provide different
desktop environments and applications for testing purposes, but it does not
provide the tools or resources for developing or configuring applications. The
application developer may need a different type of cloud service, such as platform
as a service (PaaS) or software development as a service (SDaaS), to create and
deploy applications.
Question # 25
A customer recently installed a new graphics card, but the card's HDMI port is not getting asignal when connected to the monitor. When the monitor is connected to the original HDMIport, located next to the USB ports, everything works as expected. Which of the followingshould the technician do next?
A. Change the input source selection on the monitor. B. Check to see whether the UEFI setting for PCle graphics is enabled. C. Install a higher wattage power supply. D. Test the new graphics card with an HDMI to DVI adapter.
Answer: B
Question # 26
A printer displays an error message even after a paper jam is cleared. Which of thefollowing should a technician do to fix the issue?
A. Check the paper path for a blocked sensor. B. Verify the pickup roller is functioning. C. Change the duplex settings. D. Run internal printer diagnostics.
Answer: A
Explanation: A paper path is the route that paper takes through a printer from the input
tray to the output tray. A blocked sensor is a sensor that detects paper jams or other errors
in the paper path but fails to clear after the problem is resolved. A blocked sensor can
cause a printer to display an error message even after a paper jam is cleared. The
technician should check the paper path for any debris or obstructions that may trigger the
sensor.
Question # 27
Given the following output from a cable tester:==================== Open=12345678==12 45 78====================Which of the following tools should the technician use to resolve this issue? (Select two).
A. Loopback plug B. Network tap C. Toner probe D. Crimper E. Punchdown tool F. Wi-Fi analyzer
Answer: D,E
Explanation:
The output from the cable tester indicates that there is an open fault in the cable, which
means that one or more of the wires in the cable are not connected properly or are broken.
The open fault affects the wires 3, 4, and 6, which are used for transmitting and receiving
data in Ethernet networks. The open fault can cause network connectivity issues, such as
no link, slow speed, or packet loss12.
To resolve this issue, the technician should use a crimper and a punchdown tool, which are
tools that are used to attach connectors to cables or wires to patch panels. A crimper is a
tool that squeezes or crimps a connector, such as an RJ-45, to the end of a cable, ensuring
that the wires are securely inserted into the pins of the connector. A punchdown tool is a
tool that pushes or punches a wire into a slot on a patch panel, creating a connection
between the wire and the panel. Both tools can be used to fix or replace the faulty wires or
connectors that cause the open fault12.
The other options are not as effective or relevant as a crimper and a punchdown tool. A
loopback plug is a tool that is used to test the functionality of a network port or device, by
sending and receiving signals from the same port or device. A loopback plug can help
diagnose network problems, such as faulty ports or devices, but it cannot fix the open fault
in the cable12. A network tap is a tool that is used to monitor or capture network traffic, by
creating a copy of the data that passes through a network link. A network tap can help
analyze network performance, security, or troubleshooting, but it cannot fix the open fault in
the cable12. A toner probe is a tool that is used to trace or identify a cable or wire, by
sending and detecting an audible tone along the cable or wire. A toner probe can help
locate or label network cables or wires, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12. A Wi-
Fi analyzer is a tool that is used to scan or measure wireless networks, by displaying
information such as signal strength, channel, encryption, etc. A Wi-Fi analyzer can help
optimize or troubleshoot wireless networks, but it cannot fix the open fault in the cable12.
References:
Network Tools – CompTIA A+ 220-1101 - Professor Messer IT …
and Labs and Textbook Bundle, Chapter 5: Networking, Section 5.5: Network
Tools, Page 250
Question # 28
Isolating email attachments in a safe place until the attachments can be scanned formalware is defined as:
A. an approve listing. B. a screened subnet. C. cross-platform virtualization. D. sandboxing.
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Sandboxing.
Sandboxing is a security technique that isolates email attachments in a safe place until the
Question # 29
A technician is upgrading a desktop's storage with the fastest option available. Thedesktop's motherboard is equipped with SATA Ill, NVMe, and IDE. Which of the followingshould the technician choose for the best performance?
A. PCIe SSD connected via NVMe interface B. 3.5in (8.9cm) 10,000rpm HDD connected via IDE interface C. M.2 SSD connected via SATA interface D. 2.5in (6.35cm) SSD connected via SATA interface
Answer: A
Explanation:
The best option that the technician should choose for the best performance is A. PCIe SSD
connected via NVMe interface. This option means that the technician should install a solid
state drive (SSD) that uses the PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) bus
and the NVMe (Non-Volatile Memory Express) protocol to communicate with the
motherboard. This option can offer the following advantages:
Faster speed: PCIe SSDs can transfer data faster than SATA or IDE SSDs, as
they use more lanes and have higher bandwidth. PCIe SSDs can reach speeds of
up to 7,000 MB/s, while SATA SSDs are limited to 600 MB/s and IDE SSDs are
even slower12. NVMe is a protocol that is designed specifically for SSDs and can
optimize their performance by reducing latency and increasing parallelism3.
Smaller size: PCIe SSDs can be smaller than SATA or IDE SSDs, as they do not
require additional cables or connectors. PCIe SSDs can come in different form
factors, such as M.2 or U.2, which can fit in different slots on the motherboard12.
Higher reliability: PCIe SSDs can be more reliable than SATA or IDE SSDs, as
they have less moving parts and are less prone to mechanical failures or data
corruption. PCIe SSDs can also support features such as error correction and
wear leveling, which can enhance their durability and lifespan12.
Question # 30
Which of the following cables should be used when connecting a cable modem to a SOHOrouter?
A. FireWire B. Fiber C. Ethernet D. Coaxial
Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C. Ethernet.
An Ethernet cable is a type of network cable that is used to connect devices on a local area
network (LAN), such as computers, routers, switches, and modems. Ethernet cables have
RJ-45 connectors at both ends, which are similar to telephone jacks but larger. Ethernet
cables can carry data signals at speeds ranging from 10 Mbps to 10 Gbps, depending on
the type and quality of the cable.
A cable modem is a device that connects to a coaxial cable from a cable service provider and provides high-speed internet access. A SOHO router is a small office/home office
router that connects to a cable modem or DSL modem and provides network and internet
access to multiple devices on a LAN. A SOHO router typically has one WAN port and four
LAN ports. The WAN port is used to connect to the cable modem or DSL modem, while the
LAN ports are used to connect to computers or other devices on the LAN.
To connect a cable modem to a SOHO router, an Ethernet cable is needed. The Ethernet
cable is plugged into the WAN port of the SOHO router and the Ethernet port of the cable
modem. This allows the SOHO router to receive an IP address from the cable service
provider and share it with the devices on the LAN using network address translation (NAT).
The SOHO router also provides firewall and wireless features for the LAN.
The other options are incorrect because they are not suitable for connecting a cable
modem to a SOHO router. FireWire is a type of serial bus that is used to connect devices
such as digital cameras, external hard drives, and audio interfaces. FireWire cables have
different connectors than Ethernet cables and cannot be used for network communication.
Fiber is a type of optical cable that uses light signals to transmit data over long distances.
Fiber cables have special connectors that are not compatible with Ethernet ports. Coaxial is
a type of copper cable that has a central conductor surrounded by an insulating layer and a
braided shield. Coaxial cables are used for cable TV and internet services, but they cannot
be directly connected to Ethernet ports without an adapter.
Installing and Configuring a Cable Modem/DSL Router
Cisco 831 Router and SOHO 91 Router Cabling and Setup Quick Start Guide
Question # 31
A technician wants to stress test multiple applications while maintaining the ability to easilyreset those environments back to the initial state. Which of the following is the best way toaccomplish this task?
A. Honeypot B. Hybrid cloud C. Sandbox D. Production network
Answer: C
Explanation: A sandbox is a virtual environment that allows testing or running applications without
affecting the main system. A sandbox can isolate the applications from the rest of the
system, preventing any unwanted changes, errors, or security risks. A sandbox can also be
easily reset to the initial state, discarding any modifications or data generated by the
applications12.
A sandbox is a useful tool for stress testing multiple applications, as it can:
•Simulate different scenarios and conditions for the applications, such as high load, low
memory, network latency, etc.
•Monitor and measure the performance, stability, and resource consumption of the
applications under stress.
•Compare and analyze the results of different applications or different versions of the same
application.
•Identify and fix any bugs, errors, or vulnerabilities in the applications before deploying
them to the main system.
Question # 32
A technician is using a PAN to connect a group of users on a field project. Which of thefollowing services should the technician activate on the mobile device to share the internetdata connection?
A. Tethering B. Pairing C. Bluetooth D. Hotspot
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Tethering.
Tethering is the process of sharing a mobile device’s internet data connection with other
devices, such as laptops, tablets, or other phones. Tethering can be done by using a Wi-Fi hotspot, a Bluetooth connection, or a USB cable. A Wi-Fi hotspot creates a wireless
network that other devices can join, a Bluetooth connection pairs the devices and allows
data transfer, and a USB cable connects the devices physically and enables data sharing.
A PAN, or personal area network, is a type of network that connects devices within a short
range, usually up to 10 meters. A PAN can be used for various purposes, such as
transferring files, printing documents, or accessing the internet. A PAN can be created by
using Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, or infrared technologies.
A technician can use a PAN to connect a group of users on a field project by using
tethering on a mobile device. The technician can activate the tethering service on the
mobile device and choose the preferred method of sharing the internet data connection.
The other devices can then connect to the mobile device and access the internet through it.
The other options are incorrect because they are not services that can share the internet
data connection on a mobile device. Pairing is the process of establishing a connection
between two Bluetooth devices, but it does not necessarily share the internet data
connection. Bluetooth is a technology that can create a PAN and enable tethering, but it is
not a service that can be activated on a mobile device. Hotspot is a term that can refer to a
Wi-Fi hotspot created by tethering on a mobile device, but it is not a service that can be
activated on its own.
References:
Share a mobile connection by hotspot or tethering on Android
How to share a mobile connection by tethering or hotspot on Android
How to Share Mobile Internet to PC or Other devices
Question # 33
Which of the following is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the eventof hardware failure?
A. Redundant hardware B. UPS C. Cloud-based backup D. RAID
Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of
hardware failure is to use a cloud-based backup solution. A cloud-based backup solution is
a service that copies and stores the data of a virtual machine to a remote server or storage
device over the internet. A cloud-based backup solution can offer several benefits, such as:
High availability and reliability: A cloud-based backup solution can ensure that the
data of a virtual machine is always accessible and recoverable, even if the
hardware that hosts the virtual machine fails or is damaged. A cloud-based backup
solution can also provide redundancy and fault tolerance, by replicating the data
across multiple locations or regions.
Scalability and flexibility: A cloud-based backup solution can adapt to the changing
needs and demands of the virtual machine, by allowing the user to adjust the
backup frequency, retention period, and storage capacity. A cloud-based backup solution can also support different types of backup, such as full, incremental, or
differential, depending on the user’s preferences and requirements.
Cost-effectiveness and simplicity: A cloud-based backup solution can reduce the
cost and complexity of maintaining a backup infrastructure, by eliminating the need
to purchase, install, or manage hardware, software, or licenses. A cloud-based
backup solution can also automate and streamline the backup process, by
providing easy-to-use tools and interfaces, such as web portals, APIs, or scripts.
Other options, such as redundant hardware, UPS, or RAID, may improve the performance
or resilience of the hardware that hosts the virtual machine, but they do not provide a
complete protection for the data of the virtual machine in the event of hardware failure.
Redundant hardware is a technique that uses multiple components or devices to perform
the same function, so that if one fails, another can take over. UPS (uninterruptible power
supply) is a device that provides backup power to a system in case of a power outage or
surge. RAID (redundant array of independent disks) is a technology that combines multiple
disks into a logical unit, to improve the speed, capacity, or reliability of the storage.
However, these options may not prevent data loss or corruption due to other causes, such
as human error, malware, or natural disasters. Therefore, a cloud-based backup solution is
the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the event of hardware failure.
References:
What is Cloud Backup? | Microsoft Azure1
Cloud Backup - What is it and how does it work? | Veeam2
Cloud Backup vs. Local Backup: Which Option is Right for You?3
Question # 34
A user needs to transfer files from an Apple phone to a workstation. Which of the followingconnection types should the user utilize?
A. USB-C B. Serial C. Lightning D. NFC
Answer: C
Explanation:
Lightning is a proprietary connection type that is used by Apple devices, such as iPhones,
iPads, and iPods, to transfer data, charge, and connect to accessories. Lightning cables
have a reversible 8-pin connector that can be plugged into a USB port on a workstation or
a power adapter. USB-C, serial, and NFC are not compatible with Apple phones.
Which of the following is a scenario in which an F-type connector would be used?
A. A technician is making a serial connection to a hardware device. B. An internet service provider is installing service for a client. C. A user is purchasing a charging cable for a laptop. D. An electrician is upgrading the service on an electrical panel.
Answer: B
Explanation: An F-type connector is a coaxial RF connector that is commonly used for
cable television, satellite television, and cable modems. An internet service provider (ISP)
may use an F-type connector to connect the coaxial cable from the wall outlet to the cable
modem or the set-top box. The F-type connector has a threaded interface that provides a
secure and reliable connection. The F-type connector can also support high-frequency
signals up to several GHz, which can deliver high-speed internet and high-definition
television.
Other scenarios, such as making a serial connection to a hardware device, purchasing a
charging cable for a laptop, or upgrading the service on an electrical panel, are not likely to
use an F-type connector. A serial connection to a hardware device may use a DB-9 or a
DB-25 connector, which are D-shaped connectors with pins. A charging cable for a laptop
may use a USB or a barrel connector, which are flat or cylindrical connectors with contacts.
An electrical panel may use a twist-lock or a pin-and-sleeve connector, which are round
connectors with locking mechanisms.
References:
F connector - Wikipedia1
F-Type Connectors - RF Connectors | Amphenol RF2
How to Install F Connectors on Coaxial Cable - The Spruce3
Question # 36
After moving a user's legacy workstation into a new private office that does not have a LANconnection, the technician is unable to connect to a wireless network. Which of thefollowing is the most likely reason?
A. Missing Wi-Fi adapter B. Wi-Fi AP replacement C. Hidden Wi-Fi SSID D. Incorrect Wi-Fi channel
Answer: A
Explanation: The most likely reason is A. Missing Wi-Fi adapter.
A Wi-Fi adapter is a device that allows a computer to connect to a wireless network. A
legacy workstation may not have a built-in Wi-Fi adapter, or it may have an outdated or
incompatible one. If the workstation does not have a Wi-Fi adapter, it will not be able to
detect or access any wireless networks, regardless of the location, signal strength, or
configuration of the network.
To fix this issue, the technician can install a Wi-Fi adapter on the workstation, either
internally or externally. An internal Wi-Fi adapter is a card that fits into a slot on the
motherboard, while an external Wi-Fi adapter is a device that plugs into a USB port. The
technician should choose a Wi-Fi adapter that is compatible with the workstation’s
operating system, hardware, and wireless standards .
The other options are less likely to be the reason for the issue. A Wi-Fi AP replacement
means changing the wireless access point that provides the network connection. This may
affect the network name, password, or settings, but it should not prevent the workstation
from detecting any wireless networks. A hidden Wi-Fi SSID means that the network name
is not broadcasted publicly, but it can still be accessed by entering the name manually. A
hidden Wi-Fi SSID may make it harder to find the network, but it should not prevent the
workstation from detecting other wireless networks. An incorrect Wi-Fi channel means that
the network is using a frequency band that is crowded or interfered by other devices. This
may affect the network performance or stability, but it should not prevent the workstation
from detecting any wireless networks.
References:
How to Add Wi-Fi to a Desktop Computer - How-To Geek How to Choose a Wireless Adapter for Your Computer - Lifewire
Which of the following devices is capable of dynamically distributing an IP address?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Injector D. Router
Answer: D
Explanation: A router is a device that can dynamically distribute an IP address to the
devices connected to its network using a protocol called DHCP (Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol). DHCP allows a router to automatically assign an IP address and
other network configuration information to a device when it joins the network, without
requiring manual intervention from the administrator. A router can also act as a gateway
between different networks, such as a local area network (LAN) and the internet1.
A hub is a device that connects multiple devices on a network and forwards data packets
between them. However, a hub does not assign IP addresses or perform any routing
functions. A hub operates at the physical layer of the OSI model and does not understand
IP addresses or other network protocols.
A switch is a device that connects multiple devices on a network and forwards data packets
between them based on their MAC addresses. A switch can improve the performance and
security of a network by reducing collisions and isolating traffic. However, a switch does not
assign IP addresses or perform any routing functions. A switch operates at the data link
layer of the OSI model and does not understand IP addresses or other network protocols.
An injector is a device that provides power to another device over an Ethernet cable, such
as a wireless access point or a security camera. This is also known as Power over Ethernet
(PoE). An injector does not assign IP addresses or perform any routing functions. An
injector operates at the physical layer of the OSI model and does not understand IP
addresses or other network protocols.
Question # 38
A technician wants to deploy a .msi package to a corporate network. The technician needsto verify the application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the endusers' computers. Which of the following would the technician consider the mostappropriate for this situation?
A. Virtual network B. Application virtualization C. Cross-platform virtualization D. Virtual sandbox E. Virtual desktop
Answer: B
Explanation: Application virtualization is a technique that allows an application to run on a
computer without being installed or affecting other applications on the system. Application
virtualization creates a virtual environment for the application that isolates it from the
underlying operating system and hardware. This way, the technician can verify the
application deployment will not affect other legacy applications on the end users’
computers.
Question # 39
A user is unable to use a drawing stylus on a smartphone. The smartphone did notoriginally come with a stylus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The phone needs to be updated to the latest OS. B. The drawing stylus only works with a special digitizer. C. The stylus must be re-paired to this new device. D. The phone's screen only supports resistive styluses.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A digitizer is a device that converts analog signals, such as touch or pressure, into digital
signals that can be processed by a computer. A digitizer is usually embedded in the screen
of a smartphone or tablet, and it works with a compatible stylus to enable drawing and
writing on the screen1.
There are different types of digitizers and styluses, such as capacitive, resistive, active, and
passive. Capacitive digitizers and styluses work by detecting changes in the electric field
on the screen when the stylus touches it. Resistive digitizers and styluses work by
detecting changes in the resistance on the screen when the stylus presses it. Active
digitizers and styluses work by using an electromagnetic field to communicate between the
stylus and the screen. Passive digitizers and styluses work by using a special material on
the tip of the stylus that mimics the human finger2.
Not all digitizers and styluses are compatible with each other. For example, an active stylus
will not work with a capacitive or resistive digitizer, and vice versa. A passive stylus will
work with any digitizer, but it will not have any advanced features, such as pressure
sensitivity or tilt control2.
Question # 40
A user with a custom hosts file is having difficulty connecting to a locally hosted site on asmall office network. The technician cannot ping the server hostname from the user'scomputer. Which of the following should the technician ensure on the server?
A. The server is configured with a static IP address. B. The server does not have an APIPA. C. The appropriate services are enabled on the server. D. The server's secondary NIC is functioning.
Answer: A
Explanation: A custom hosts file is a file that maps hostnames to IP addresses, allowing
the user to access websites or servers by their names instead of their numerical
addresses. For example, a user can add a line like 192.168.1.100 myserver.local to their
hosts file and then access the server by typing myserver.local in their browser. However,
this method only works if the IP address of the server does not change. If the server is
Question # 41
A user reports that when pressing a radio button on a tablet, an item a couple of inches tothe right of the pressed button gets selected instead. Which of thefollowing components may need to be replaced?
A. Gyroscope B. Battery C. Digitizer D. Glass
Answer: C
Explanation: A digitizer is a component that converts the touch input on a tablet screen
into digital signals that can be processed by the device. A digitizer consists of a thin layer of
transparent material that covers the glass screen and has sensors that detect the position
and pressure of the touch. If the digitizer is damaged, misaligned, or poorly calibrated, it
can cause inaccurate touch input, such as selecting the wrong item or not responding at
all12. Therefore, the most likely cause of the issue in this scenario is a faulty digitizer that
may need to be replaced. The other components are not directly related to the touch input
functionality of the tablet. A gyroscope is a sensor that measures the orientation and
rotation of the device3. A battery is a power source that supplies electricity to the device4.
A glass is a protective layer that covers the screen and prevents scratches and cracks5.
References
1: What is a Digitizer? - Definition from Techopedia
2: How to Fix a Broken Digitizer on a Tablet | Chron.com
3: What is a Gyroscope Sensor in Mobile Phones? - Definition from Techopedia
4: What is a Battery? - Definition from Techopedia
5: What is Glass? - Definition from Techopedia
Question # 42
A customer reports that, after a technician replaced a laptop screen, the laptop is only ableto connect to a Wi-Fi network if it is positioned very close to a wireless access point. Whichof the followingshould the technician verify first?
A. The internal antennas are connected. B. The device has the latest OS updates. C. The wireless device drivers are the latest version D. Airplane mode is disabled. E. The battery is charging.
Answer: A
Explanation: The internal antennas are the components that allow the laptop to receive
and transmit wireless signals from and to the wireless access point. The internal antennas
are usually located inside or around the laptop screen, and they are connected to the wireless network card or adapter by thin wires or cables. If the internal antennas are
disconnected, damaged, or misaligned, the laptop may experience wireless connectivity
issues, such as low signal strength, limited range, or intermittent connection.
In this scenario, a customer reports that, after a technician replaced a laptop screen, the
laptop is only able to connect to a Wi-Fi network if it is positioned very close to a wireless
access point. This could indicate that the technician accidentally disconnected or damaged
the internal antennas during the screen replacement process, and that the laptop is not
receiving enough wireless signals from the wireless access point. Therefore, the first thing
that the technician should verify is that the internal antennas are properly connected and
positioned inside or around the laptop screen.
To verify and reconnect the internal antennas, the technician should follow these steps :
Turn off the laptop and disconnect it from any power source or external device.
Remove the battery and any screws that secure the laptop screen bezel.
Carefully pry off the laptop screen bezel and expose the internal antennas.
Check if the internal antennas are intact and securely connected to the wireless
network card or adapter. The internal antennas may have different colors or labels,
such as black, white, gray, main, aux, or 1, 2.
If the internal antennas are disconnected or loose, reconnect them to the
corresponding connectors on the wireless network card or adapter. Make sure that
they snap into place and that there is no gap or bend in the wires or cables.
If the internal antennas are damaged or broken, replace them with compatible
ones. Make sure that they have the same length and shape as the original ones.
Realign and reposition the internal antennas inside or around the laptop screen.
Make sure that they do not interfere with any other component or cable, and that
they follow the original path and direction.
Reattach the laptop screen bezel and secure it with screws.
Reinsert the battery and turn on the laptop.
Test the wireless connectivity and performance of the laptop.
Question # 43
An IT technician is troubleshooting an issue with connecting a new laptop to a company'swireless network. Which of the following diagnostic steps should the technician take first?
A. Review the network settings in the OS. B. Install the latest firmware updates on the WAPs. C. Increase the signal strength of the router. D. Reset the router and reconfigure the wireless settings.
Answer: A
Explanation: The first step in troubleshooting any network issue is to identify the problem
and gather information from the user and the device. Reviewing the network settings in the
OS can help the technician verify if the laptop is configured correctly to connect to the
wireless network, such as the SSID, security type, password, IP address, DNS server, etc.
This can also help the technician rule out any software or driver issues that might prevent
the laptop from connecting to the network. This is a logical and simple step that can be
done before attempting any other actions that might affect the network infrastructure or
CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide
Question # 44
Which of the following is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine in the eventof hardware failure?
A. Redundant hardware B. UPS C. Cloud-based backup D. RAID
Answer: C
Explanation:
Cloud-based backup is the best way to protect the data of a virtual machine, as it allows
the data to be stored in a remote location that is accessible from anywhere. Cloud-based
backup also provides scalability, security, and reliability for data
protection3. References: [Cloud Backup]
Question # 45
Which of the following network types is used for pairing a Bluetooth device to asmartphone?
A. PAN B. WAN C. LAN D. MAN
Answer: A
Explanation: A PAN, or Personal Area Network, is the network type that is used for pairing
a Bluetooth device to a smartphone. A PAN is a network that connects personal devices, such as phones, tablets, laptops, headphones, speakers, or printers, over a short distance,
usually less than 10 meters or 33 feet. A PAN can use wireless technologies, such as
Bluetooth, Wi-Fi, or infrared, to enable communication and data exchange between the
devices. A Bluetooth PAN, also known as a piconet, can consist of up to eight devices, one
of which acts as the master and the others as slaves. The master device initiates the
pairing process with the other devices and controls the data transmission. The devices use
radio waves in the 2.4 GHz frequency band to communicate with each other. Bluetooth is a
low-power, low-cost, and secure technology that is widely used for creating PANs.
References:
What Is Bluetooth Wireless Networking?1
Bluetooth - GeeksforGeeks2
Bluetooth | Institute of Physics3
6 Different Types of Bluetooth Devices - TechJeny4
Question # 46
A technician installed a Cat 5 UTP cable approximately 275ft (84m) from a network switchin an office to a workstation located on a factory floor. The technician sees both a flashinggreen LED and a flashing orange LED on the workstation's NIC. Which of the followingshould the technician do first?
A. Check for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical damage. B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cablerun. C. Replace the entire run of Cat 5 UTP cable with Cat 5 STP cable. D. Upgrade the entire cable run to multimode fiber.
Answer: B
Explanation:
The correct answer is B. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in
the Cat 5 UTP cable run. The problem is most likely caused by the excessive length of the Cat 5 UTP cable, which
exceeds the maximum limit of 100 meters (328 feet) for Ethernet over twisted pair12. This
can result in signal degradation, interference, and packet loss, which can affect the network
performance and connectivity. The flashing green LED indicates that the NIC is receiving
data, while the flashing orange LED indicates that the NIC is sending data3. However,
these LEDs do not indicate the quality or speed of the data transmission, which may be
poor due to the long cable run.
The best solution is to install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the
Cat 5 UTP cable run. A powered hub is a device that can amplify and regenerate the
signal, as well as provide additional ports for connecting more devices. A powered hub can
extend the effective range of the cable and improve the network performance and
connectivity1.
The other options are not the best solutions for this problem. Checking for loose
connections, pinched bends, and physical damage is a good troubleshooting step, but it is
unlikely to solve the problem if the cable is too long. Replacing the entire run of Cat 5 UTP
cable with Cat 5 STP cable may reduce some interference, but it will not solve the problem
of signal degradation due to the length. Upgrading the entire cable run to multimode fiber
may provide better performance and range, but it will also require replacing the NICs and
switches, which will be costly and time-consuming.
Question # 47
Which of the following is the best environment for an engineer to use for researchpurposes?
A. Host B. Sandbox C. Simulated production D. Cross-platform
Answer: B
Explanation:
A sandbox is a virtual environment that isolates the engineer’s research activities from the
rest of the system. This allows the engineer to test, experiment, and modify the system
without affecting the real data, applications, or settings. A sandbox is the best environment
for research purposes because it provides a safe and controlled way to explore new ideas,
simulate scenarios, and troubleshoot problems. A sandbox can also be easily reset or
deleted after the research is done.
References
What is a Sandbox Environment?
Chapter 4: Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Question # 48
Which of the following server types can dynamically assign primary and secondary DNS?
A. DHCP server B. Global catalog server C. Web server D. Name server
Answer: A
Explanation: A DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) server is a server type that
can dynamically assign IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to
clients, such as primary and secondary DNS (Domain Name System) servers. DNS servers
are responsible for resolving hostnames to IP addresses and vice versa. A global catalog
server, a web server, and a name server are not involved in DHCP operations.
A developer is requesting permission to utilize client-side virtualization. The developerwould like to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid negativeimpacts of experimental code. Which of the following provides the best solution for thedeveloper?
A. Cross-platform functionality B. Software compatibility C. Test case development D. Sandbox environment
Answer: D
Explanation: The best solution for the developer is D. Sandbox environment.
Client-side virtualization is a technology that allows users to run multiple operating systems
and applications on the same device, without affecting the host system or the network1. A
sandbox environment is a type of client-side virtualization that creates a secure and
isolated space for testing, debugging, or experimenting with code, without risking any
damage or interference to the rest of the system2. A sandbox environment can provide several benefits for the developer, such as23:
•It can simulate different scenarios and conditions for the code, such as different operating
systems, browsers, devices, network settings, etc.
•It can protect the code from external threats, such as malware, hackers, or unauthorized
access.
•It can prevent the code from affecting other applications or processes on the device or the
network, such as consuming resources, causing errors, or leaking data.
•It can allow the developer to easily revert any changes or restore the original state of the
system, if something goes wrong.
Therefore, a sandbox environment can provide the best solution for the developer who
wants to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid negative impacts
2: What is a Sandbox Environment? | VMware Glossary
3: What is Sandbox Testing? - Definition from Techopedia
Question # 50
A network technician is working to locate an end user's Cat 6 cable within a network rack.The server rack is poorly documented, and a cable management system has not beenimplemented_ Which of the following would be the best tool to best identify the correctcable?
A. Cable tester B. Network tap C. Toner probe D. Loopback plug
Answer: C
Explanation:
The best tool to identify the correct cable is C. Toner probe.
A toner probe is a device that can be used to locate and trace a specific cable within a
network rack or a wall outlet. A toner probe consists of two parts: a tone generator and a
tone detector. The tone generator is connected to one end of the cable and sends an
audible signal through the cable. The tone detector is used to scan the other end of the
cable and pick up the signal. The tone detector emits a sound or a light when it detects the
signal, indicating the correct cable.
A toner probe can be useful for network technicians who need to locate an end user’s Cat 6
cable within a network rack that is poorly documented and has no cable management
system. A Cat 6 cable is a type of twisted pair cable that can support high-speed data
transmission over Ethernet networks. A network rack is a frame that holds network
equipment, such as servers, switches, routers, or patch panels. A cable management system is a set of devices or methods that organize and secure the cables within a network
rack .
The other options are not the best tools to identify the correct cable, because they have
different purposes or limitations. A cable tester (option A) is a device that can be used to
test the functionality and quality of a cable, such as its continuity, resistance, or
interference. A cable tester can help diagnose and troubleshoot faulty cables, but it cannot
locate or trace specific cables within a network rack. A network tap (option B) is a device
that can be used to monitor and analyze the traffic and data that pass through a network. A
network tap can help capture and inspect network packets, but it cannot locate or trace
specific cables within a network rack. A loopback plug (option D) is a device that can be
used to test the functionality and connectivity of a port or an interface. A loopback plug can
help verify if a port or an interface is working properly, but it cannot locate or trace specific
cables within a network rack.
For more information about toner probes and other network tools, you can refer to the
following web search results: [What Is a Toner Probe?], [What Is Cat 6 Cable?], [What Is a
Network Rack?], [What Is a Cable Tester?], [What Is a Network Tap?], [What Is a
Loopback Plug?].
Question # 51
A technician is troubleshooting a thermal receipt printer that will not print. Which of thefollowing should the technician do first to restore functionality?
A. Update the printer driver on the computer. B. Replace the thermal printhead. C. Make sure the thermal head is heating up. D. Flip the paper roll orientation.
Answer: D
Explanation:
A thermal receipt printer uses heat to print on thermal paper, which has a special coating
that reacts to heat and produces black marks. If the paper roll is inserted in the wrong
orientation, the printer will not be able to print anything on the paper. Therefore, the first
thing the technician should do is to check if the paper roll is loaded correctly, with the paper feeding under, not over. This is a common and easy mistake to fix, and it does not require
•POS Thermal Receipt Printer Troubleshoot - Not Printing Evenly, video at 0:15
•Receipt Printer Troubleshooting – Shopfront, bullet point 2
Question # 52
A technician is creating a consecutive range of IP addresses that a server can select fromto fulfill requests from network clients. Which of the following is the technician creating?
A. DHCP scope B. Static IP list C. DNS A records D. Automatic private IP addressing
Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is A. DHCP scope.
A DHCP scope is a consecutive range of IP addresses that a DHCP server can select from
to fulfill requests from network clients. A DHCP server is a device that automatically
assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices that request
them. A DHCP scope defines the pool of available IP addresses, as well as the subnet
mask, default gateway, DNS servers, and lease duration for each IP address. A DHCP
scope can also include exclusions, reservations, and policies to customize the IP address allocation process12.
A static IP list is a list of IP addresses that are manually assigned to devices and do not
change over time. A static IP list does not require a DHCP server, but it requires more
administrative effort and coordination to avoid conflicts or errors. A static IP list is not a
consecutive range of IP addresses that a server can select from3.
DNS A records are DNS records that map a domain name to an IPv4 address. DNS is a
system that translates human-readable domain names into machine-readable IP
addresses. DNS A records are not a range of IP addresses that a server can select from,
but a way of resolving domain names to IP addresses.
Automatic private IP addressing (APIPA) is a feature of Windows that allows devices to
self-assign an IP address in the absence of a DHCP server or a static IP configuration.
APIPA uses the 169.254.0.0/16 address range, which is reserved for link-local
communication. APIPA does not create a range of IP addresses that a server can select
from, but a fallback mechanism for devices that cannot obtain an IP address from another
source.
For more information about DHCP scopes and other related topics, you can refer to the
following web search results: DHCP Scope - NETWORK ENCYCLOPEDIA, Managing
Microsoft DHCP Scope and other Components - ATA Learning, Dynamic Host
Configuration Protocol (DHCP) | Microsoft Learn.
Question # 53
A technician is setting up three web servers foe a retail company that takes online ordersfor its products. Which of the following network host services should the technician use toensure the servers' resources will be utilized efficiently?
A. UTM appliance B. AAA server C. Spam gateway D. Load balancer
Answer: D
Explanation: A load balancer is a network device or service that distributes incoming
network traffic across multiple servers, based on various criteria, such as availability,
capacity, performance, or location. A load balancer can ensure that the servers’ resources
will be utilized efficiently, as well as improve reliability, scalability, and security. A load
balancer can be hardware-based or software-based, or a combination of both. Reference:
A user has been having issues charging a laptop after turning it on and has noticed thelaptop screen is dim. Which of the following components most likely needs to be replaced?
A. LCD B. Video card C. Digitizer D. inverter
Answer: D
Explanation: An inverter is a component that converts DC power to AC power for the
backlight of an LCD (liquid crystal display) screen. If the inverter is faulty, the screen may
appear dim or dark, even if the brightness settings are adjusted. Replacing the inverter may
fix the issue. The LCD itself, the video card, and the digitizer are not related to the screen
A customer purchased an active touch pen for a tablet PC. After the customer used the penfor a few days, it stopped working. Which of the following is most likely causing the issue?
A. The tablet screen is scratched. B. The pen software is out of date. C. The pen batteries need recharging. D. Software updates disabled the pen.
Answer: C
Explanation: The most likely answer is C. The pen batteries need recharging.
An active touch pen is a stylus that uses a battery to power features such as pressure
sensitivity, buttons, or Bluetooth connectivity. If the pen batteries are low or depleted, the
pen may stop working or become inaccurate1. To fix this issue, you should recharge the
pen batteries using the provided charger or cable, or replace them with new ones if they
are not rechargeable1.
The other options are less likely to cause the issue. A scratched tablet screen may affect
the touch sensitivity, but it should not affect the pen functionality. The pen software may
need updating to improve performance or compatibility, but it should not stop the pen from
working altogether. Software updates may disable the pen if they change the settings or
drivers, but this can be fixed by re-enabling the pen or reinstalling the drivers2.
References:
1: Troubleshoot your Surface Pen - Microsoft Support
2: Windows 10 touch screen: active pen works, finger does not - Super User
Question # 56
Every time a user tries to print a multipage document, the user is unable to print on bothsides of the page. Which of the following settings will most likely resolve this issue?
A. Orientation B. Duplex C. Quality D. Print tray
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Duplex.
Duplex printing is the process of printing on both sides of a sheet of paper automatically or
manually. Duplex printing can save paper, reduce clutter, and create professional-looking
documents. To print on both sides of the paper, the printer must support duplex printing or
the user must manually reinsert the pages to print the second side.
Orientation is the direction in which the paper is printed, either portrait (vertical) or
landscape (horizontal). Orientation does not affect the ability to print on both sides of the
paper.
Quality is the resolution or sharpness of the printed image, measured in dots per inch (dpi).
Quality does not affect the ability to print on both sides of the paper.
Print tray is the part of the printer that holds and feeds the paper into the printer. Print tray
does not affect the ability to print on both sides of the paper.
To enable duplex printing on a Windows PC, follow these steps1:
Open the document for printing, then select File > Print.
In Settings, select Manually Print on Both Sides, then Print.
Follow the instructions on the screen to flip and reinsert the pages.
To enable duplex printing on a Mac, follow these steps2:
Open the document for printing, then select File > Print.
In Layout, select Two-Sided, then Long-Edge binding or Short-Edge binding.
Click Print.
References:
Print on both sides of the paper (duplex printing) in Word
How to Print Double-Sided on a Windows PC or Mac Computer
Question # 57
Which of the following is considered a connectionless protocol?
A. SSH B. TCP C. HTTPS D. UDP
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is D. UDP.
UDP (User Datagram Protocol) is a connectionless protocol that does not establish a
connection before sending or receiving data. UDP simply sends datagrams to the
destination without checking if the receiver is ready or not. UDP does not guarantee
reliable delivery, error correction, or in-order arrival of the data. UDP is faster and more
efficient than connection-oriented protocols for applications that do not require reliability,
such as streaming audio or video1
A. SSH (Secure Shell) is not a correct answer. SSH is a connection-oriented protocol that
uses TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) as its transport layer. SSH establishes a secure
and encrypted connection between two network endpoints before exchanging data. SSH
provides authentication, confidentiality, and integrity for remote login and command
execution2
B. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) is not a correct answer. TCP is a connectionoriented
protocol that establishes a connection before sending or receiving data. TCP
ensures reliable delivery, error correction, and in-order arrival of the data. TCP is slower
and more complex than connectionless protocols, but it provides more reliability and quality
of service for applications that require it, such as web browsing or email1
C. HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure) is not a correct answer. HTTPS is a
connection-oriented protocol that uses TCP as its transport layer and SSL/TLS as its
security layer. HTTPS establishes a secure and encrypted connection between a web
browser and a web server before exchanging data. HTTPS provides authentication,
confidentiality, and integrity for web transactions, such as online banking or shopping1
Question # 58
A user reports the following:I. When accessing large images, PC performance is degraded.2. When accessing small text files, PC performance is as expected.Which of the following is the most likely cause of the performance issues?
A. HDD fragmentation B. RAID controller failure C. RAID array configuration errors D. Insufficient power supply
Answer: A
Explanation:
HDD fragmentation is a condition where the data on a hard disk drive (HDD) is not stored
in contiguous clusters, but scattered across different physical locations on the disk. This
happens when files are created, modified, or deleted over time, leaving gaps and
fragments of data on the disk. HDD fragmentation can affect the performance of the PC,
especially when accessing large files that require more disk operations to read or write12.
According to some web search results123, some signs and symptoms of a heavily fragmented HDD are:
•Longer load times for files and programs
•Graphics-heavy apps and games take too long to load new windows or process new
environments
•Reduced disk space and efficiency
•Increased disk noise and temperature
•Accelerated disk wear and failure
To fix this issue, the user can use a tool called Disk Defragmenter, which is built-in in
Windows. Disk Defragmenter rearranges the fragmented data on the HDD so that it is
stored in contiguous clusters, improving the disk performance and reliability1. Disk
Defragmenter can run on a schedule or manually by following these steps1:
•Open Disk Defragmenter by clicking the Start button. In the search box, type Disk
Defragmenter, and then, in the list of results, click Disk Defragmenter.
•Under Current status, select the disk you want to defragment.
•To determine if the disk needs to be defragmented or not, click Analyze disk. If you’re
prompted for an administrator password or confirmation, type the password or provide
confirmation.
•Once Windows is finished analyzing the disk, you can check the percentage of
fragmentation on the disk in the Last Run column. If the number is above 10%, you should
defragment the disk.
•Click Defragment disk. If you’re prompted for an administrator password or confirmation,
type the password or provide confirmation.
•Disk Defragmenter might take from several minutes to a few hours to finish, depending on
the size and degree of fragmentation of your hard disk. You can still use your computer
during the defragmentation process.
Question # 59
A company laptop uses a docking station with an integrated NIC and is unable to access awired SOHO network using DHCP. A technician runs ipconfig anddiscovers the laptop hasan IPv4 assignment of 169.254.0.9. The NIC does not have any link or activity lights on.Which of the following should the technician do next?
A. Restart the laptop in safe mode. B. Reboot the DHCP server. C. Reset the network adapter. D. Replace the laptop. E. Reseat the laptop in the docking station.
Answer: E
Explanation: The most likely answer is E. Reseat the laptop in the docking station.
The IPv4 address of 169.254.0.9 indicates that the laptop is using an Automatic Private IP
Address (APIPA), which means that it could not obtain a valid IP address from the DHCP server on the network1. This could be caused by a physical or logical problem with the
network adapter, the cable, the docking station, or the network itself2.
One of the possible solutions is to reseat the laptop in the docking station, which means to
remove it and insert it again, making sure that it is properly aligned and connected. This
can help fix any loose or faulty connections between the laptop and the docking station,
and between the docking station and the network cable3. Reseating the laptop can also
trigger a new DHCP request and renew the IP address4.
Other possible solutions include resetting the network adapter, replacing the network cable,
rebooting the DHCP server, or restarting the laptop in safe mode. However, these are less
likely to be effective than reseating the laptop, as they involve more steps and may not
address the root cause of the problem234. Replacing the laptop is an extreme and
unnecessary measure, as there is no evidence that the laptop itself is faulty.
Question # 60
A SOHO customer would like to purchase network hardware to enhance security. Thehardware should perform stateful packet Inspection Which of the following would BESTaddress the customer's need?
A. Switch B. Firewall C. Router D. Proxy
Answer: B
Explanation: A firewall is a network device that performs stateful packet inspection, which
means it analyzes incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and
filters, and allows or blocks packets based on their source, destination, protocol, port, or
content. A firewall can enhance security by preventing unauthorized access, blocking
malicious traffic, enforcing policies, and logging events. A firewall can be hardware-based
or software-based, or a combination of both. Reference:
A user's smartphone loses its charge rapidly. The user also notices that the phone feelsthicker than it was when it was new. Which of the following is the most likely cause of theissue?
A. Bad battery B. Malware infection C. Damaged charge port D. Poor connectivity
Answer: A
Explanation:
The user's smartphone is losing its charge rapidly and feels thicker than it was when
new. Both of these symptoms point towards a bad battery.
A bad battery loses its ability to hold a charge, leading to rapid draining. Additionally, a bad
battery can physically swell, which explains why the phone feels thicker.
Malware infection, damaged charge port, and poor connectivity are unlikely causes for both
the rapid draining and the increased thickness.
References
CompTIA A+ Certification Core 1 220-1101 Study Guide, Chapter 2: Mobile
An internet service provider is delivering service through a copper medium with sharedcustomer bandwidth. Which of the following services has most likely been installed?
A. Fiber B. Cable C. NIC D. DSL
Answer: B
Explanation: Cable internet service is delivered through coaxial cables that are shared
among multiple customers in a neighborhood. This means that the bandwidth may vary
depending on the network congestion. Fiber, NIC, and DSL are not copper-based or
A technician is configuring the settings on a multifunction printer so the device can beshared across the LAN_ Which of the following should the technician do to enable theprinter to be shared across the network?
A. Install the correct print driver B. Configure the IP settings. C. Enable the web services. D. Enable the network scanning feature.
Answer: B
Explanation: To enable the printer to be shared across the network, the technician should
configure the IP settings of the printer. The IP settings include the IP address, subnet
mask, default gateway, and DNS server of the printer. The IP settings allow the printer to
communicate with other devices on the network and access network resources such as
print servers or cloud services.
The technician can configure the IP settings of the printer in different ways, such as:
Using the printer’s control panel or web interface to manually enter the IP settings
or obtain them automatically from a DHCP server.
Using the printer’s software or driver to assign a static or dynamic IP address to
the printer.
Using a network discovery tool to find and configure the printer on the network.
The technician should also make sure that the IP settings of the printer are compatible with
the network configuration and do not cause any conflicts or errors.
Question # 64
During an OS migration, a technician is unable to find compatible current software for aspecialized hardware device. Which of the following actionsshould the technician take to complete the migration?
A. Restrict user access. B. Virtualize the application. C. Replace the PC. D. Upgrade the BIOS to UEFI.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Virtualizing the application is the best action that a technician can take to complete the OS
migration when there is no compatible current software for a specialized hardware device.
Virtualizing the application means running the application in a virtual machine (VM) that
emulates the previous OS environment that supports the application and the hardware
device. This way, the technician can avoid the need to replace the PC or the hardware
device, or to restrict user access to the application. Virtualizing the application also allows
the technician to benefit from the new OS features and security updates, while maintaining
the functionality and compatibility of the application and the hardware device.
The other options are not as effective or feasible for this scenario. Restricting user access
may prevent unauthorized or accidental changes to the application or the hardware device,
but it does not solve the compatibility issue or allow the OS migration to proceed.
Replacing the PC or the hardware device may be costly, time-consuming, or impractical,
especially if the hardware device is rare, expensive, or customized. Upgrading the BIOS to
UEFI may improve the boot speed, security, and compatibility of the PC, but it does not
guarantee that the application or the hardware device will work with the new OS.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
How to Run Old Programs on Windows 10 - MakeUseOf3
How to Run Windows 10 in a Virtual Machine - PCMag4
Question # 65
An administrator is responding to a network server outage. The administrator has logged into the server to troubleshoot the outage. Which of the following is the first step theadministrator should take when attempting to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Document the results. B. Analyze the error logs. C. Check the physical connections. D. Upgrade the server firmware.
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Analyze the error logs.
Error logs are files that record the events and errors that occur on a server or a network
device. They can provide valuable information about the cause and the time of the outage,
as well as any warnings or alerts that preceded it. Analyzing the error logs can help the
administrator narrow down the possible sources of the problem and identify the best course
of action to resolve it.
The first step in troubleshooting a network is to identify the problem1. As a part of this step,
the administrator should gather information about the current state of the network using the
network troubleshooting tools that are available1. One of these tools is the error log viewer,
which can be accessed through the server’s operating system or a network monitoring
software. The administrator should look for any entries that indicate a failure, a crash, a
timeout, or an exception in the error logs. The administrator should also note the date and
time of the entries, as well as the severity and the frequency of the errors.
The other options are less likely to be the first step in troubleshooting, because:
•Documenting the results is an important step in troubleshooting, but it should be done
after identifying and resolving the problem, not before. Documenting the results can help
the administrator keep track of the actions taken, the changes made, and the outcomes
achieved. It can also help prevent future problems by providing a reference for best
practices and lessons learned1.
•Checking the physical connections is another important step in troubleshooting, but it
should be done after analyzing the error logs, not before. Physical connections are the
cables and ports that link the server to other devices on the network. They can affect the
quality and stability of the network signal. If the error logs do not indicate any software or
configuration issues, then checking the physical connections can help determine if there is
any damage or interference in the hardware2.
•Upgrading the server firmware is a possible solution for some network problems, but it
should not be done as a first step in troubleshooting, unless there is a clear indication that
the firmware is outdated or corrupted. Firmware is a type of software that controls the basic
functions of a hardware device. Upgrading the firmware can improve performance, security,
and compatibility, but it can also introduce new bugs or conflicts with other software or
hardware components. Therefore, upgrading the firmware should be done with caution and
only after backing up data and settings3.
For more information and tips on how to troubleshoot network issues, you can visit these
links:
•A Guide to Network Troubleshooting - CompTIA
•What is Network Troubleshooting? How to Fix Network Issues - SolarWinds
A user reports that a computer has been randomly shutting down without warning. Which ofthe following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. Corrupted OS B. Incompatible memory modules C. Overheated CPU D. Low system resources
Answer: C
Explanation:
An overheated CPU is the most likely cause of a computer that has been randomly shutting
down without warning. A CPU generates heat when it performs calculations, and if the heat
is not dissipated properly, it can damage the CPU or cause it to malfunction. A computer
that shuts down randomly is a common symptom of an overheated CPU, as the system
tries to protect itself from further damage by shutting down or restarting.
The other options are not as likely to cause this issue. A corrupted OS may cause the
computer to crash, display errors, or fail to boot, but it does not affect the CPU temperature
or the system fan. Incompatible memory modules may cause the computer to beep, display
a blue screen, or fail to recognize the installed RAM, but they do not cause the CPU to
overheat or the system to shut down randomly. Low system resources may cause the
computer to slow down, freeze, or display a low memory warning, but they do not affect the
CPU temperature or the system fan.
To troubleshoot and resolve an overheated CPU issue, the user should check and clean
the air vents, provide proper ventilation, apply thermal paste, replace the fan or the heat
sink, or upgrade the CPU if necessary. The user should also update the BIOS and the
device drivers, adjust the power settings, and monitor the system temperature using
diagnostic tools.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
How to Troubleshoot Fan Issues | Dell US3
Why your laptop fan is loud and how to fix it | Asurion4
HP Notebook PCs - Fan is noisy and spins constantly (Windows)5
Question # 67
An IT technician is working on a help desk ticket concerning a user's inability to create avirtual machine. The technician has already checked the RAM and HDD space in the user'smachine. Which of the following settings should the technician check NEXT to helptroubleshoot the issue?
A. BitLocker B. MSConfig C. BIOS D. Secure Boot
Answer: C
Explanation: One of the possible settings that could prevent a user from creating a virtual
machine is BIOS (Basic Input/Output System). BIOS is a firmware that controls how
hardware components interact with each other and with software applications. Some BIOS
settings may need to be changed or enabled to allow virtualization, such as VT-x (Intel
Virtualization Technology) or AMD-V (AMD Virtualization). The other options are not related
to virtualization settings. Verified References: [How To Enable Virtualization In BIOS
Settings].
Question # 68
A customer's laptop is making clicking sounds in the area where non-volatile storage isinstalled. A technician examines the laptop and confirms the issue. Which of the followingis the most appropriate replacement part?
A. 7,200rpm HDD B. NVMe SSD C. M.2 SATA SSD D. SCSI 15,000rpm HDD
Answer: B
Explanation: NVMe stands for Non-Volatile Memory Express, and it is a type of SSD (solid
state drive) that uses PCIe (Peripheral Component Interconnect Express) interface to
connect to a computer. NVMe SSDs offer faster performance and lower latency than other
types of SSDs, such as SATA (Serial ATA) or M.2 SATA. If a user reports that a PC
occasionally fails to boot and makes clicking sounds in the area where non-volatile storage
is installed, it indicates that the hard drive is failing and needs to be replaced with an NVMe SSD.
Question # 69
Which of the following allows several websites from different companies to be housed onthe same virtual server?
A. Rapid elasticity B. High availability C. Shared resources D. Metered utilization
Answer: C
Explanation: Shared resources is the concept that allows several websites from different
companies to be housed on the same virtual server. A virtual server is a software-based
server that runs on a physical server and can host multiple virtual machines (VMs). Each
VM can run a different operating system and application, such as a website, and have its
own allocated resources, such as CPU, memory, disk space, and network bandwidth.
However, the VMs share the underlying hardware resources of the physical server, which reduces the cost and complexity of maintaining separate servers for each website. This
also enables rapid scalability, as new VMs can be created or deleted as needed.
One of the methods to host multiple websites on the same virtual server is to use virtual
hosts. Virtual hosts are a feature of web servers, such as Apache, that allow the web
server to serve different websites based on the domain name or IP address requested by
the client. For example, a web server can host two websites, a.example.com and
b.example.com, on the same virtual server and the same port (such as 80 or 443), by using
virtual hosts to map each domain name to a different document root directory. The web
server will then deliver the content of the corresponding website to the client based on the
domain name in the HTTP request header.
References:
How to Host Multiple Websites With One Apache Server1
How to run multiple sites on one apache instance2
Multiple different website hosting on same port 443 and same server or …3
When several name-based virtual hosts on the same web server share the …4
How to Host Multiple Sites on One Server - Server Mania5
Question # 70
A user reports intermittent connectivity. The technician checks the network logs and seesthe following output:Interface 0/1 Status UpInterface 0/1 Status DownInterface 0/1 Status Up 13:03:20Interface 0/1 Status Down 13:04:10Switch elected as Root bridgeInterface 0/1 Status Up 13:05:40Which of the following is the most likely reason for this issue?
A. External interference B. High latency C. Jitter D. Port flapping
Answer: D
Explanation: Port flapping, also known as link flapping, is a situation in which a physical interface on the
switch continually goes up and down, causing intermittent connectivity for the devices
connected to that port12. Port flapping can be caused by various factors, such as faulty or
incompatible cables, hardware issues, configuration errors, or other network problems123.
The network logs show that interface 0/1 on the switch changes its status from up to down
and vice versa several times within a short period of time. This indicates that the port is
flapping and affecting the network connectivity. The log also shows that the switch was
elected as the root bridge, which means that it is the central point of a spanning tree
protocol (STP) network. STP is a protocol that prevents loops in a network by blocking
some ports and creating a tree-like topology. Port flapping can cause STP to recalculate
the topology and change the status of the ports, which can further disrupt the network
performance2.
To troubleshoot port flapping, the technician should check the physical and hardware
aspects of the device, such as cables, SFPs, gigabit interface converters, and power
supplies. The technician should also check the configuration settings of the port, such as
auto-negotiation, duplex mode, speed, power-saving features, and smartport. The
technician should also check for other network issues that may cause port flapping, such
as link synchronization and spanning tree issues123.
Question # 71
A customer reports that, after a technician replaced a laptop screen, the laptop is only ableto connect to a Wi-Fi network it is positioned very close to a wireless access point Which ofthe following should the technician verify FIRST?
A. The internal antennas are connected. B. The device has the latest OS updates. C. The wireless device drivers are the latest version. D. Airplane mode is disabled. E. The battery is charging.
Answer: A
Explanation: The internal antennas are the components that allow the laptop to receive
and transmit wireless signals. If the internal antennas are not connected properly, the
laptop may have a weak or no Wi-Fi signal. The technician should verify that the internal antennas are connected to the wireless card and routed correctly inside the laptop case.
The internal antennas may have been disconnected or damaged during the screen
replacement. The device having the latest OS updates, the wireless device drivers being
the latest version, airplane mode being disabled, and the battery being charging are not
related to the issue, as they do not affect the physical connection of the internal antennas.
Which of the following should the label on a network jack faceplate refer to?
A. MAC address B. Patch panel port C. Switch port in use D. VLAN identification
Answer: B
Explanation: A network jack faceplate is a device that covers and protects the network
jack or outlet on a wall or a floor. A network jack or outlet is a physical interface that allows
a network cable, such as an Ethernet cable, to be plugged into a network device, such as a
computer or a printer. A network jack faceplate usually has one or more ports that
correspond to different types of network cables, such as RJ-45, RJ-11, or coaxial.
A label on a network jack faceplate should refer to the patch panel port that the network
jack or outlet is connected to. A patch panel is a device that connects multiple network
cables in an organized and convenient way. A patch panel has a number of ports that
correspond to different cables, such as Ethernet, coaxial, or fiber-optic cables. A patch
panel can help simplify the wiring and management of a network, as well as provide
flexibility and scalability for adding or changing network devices.
By labeling the network jack faceplate with the patch panel port, the network technician can
easily identify and trace the cable that is connected to the network jack or outlet. This can
help to troubleshoot and resolve network issues, such as connectivity, performance, or
configuration problems. It can also help to avoid confusion or errors when installing or
modifying network cables.
Question # 73
A user needs to upgrade a PC in order to run the latest 3-D design software. Which of thefollowing components should the user upgrade to best meet this requirement?
A. Motherboard B. CPU C. Power supply D. Graphics card E. Memory
Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is D. Graphics card.
A graphics card is a component that handles the processing and rendering of 3D graphics
on a PC. A graphics card can significantly improve the performance and quality of 3D
design software, as it can handle complex calculations and display high-resolution images
faster than the CPU. A graphics card can also support features such as ray tracing, antialiasing,
and texture mapping, which can enhance the realism and detail of 3D models.
A. Motherboard. This is not a correct answer. A motherboard is a component that connects
and communicates with all the other components in a PC. A motherboard does not directly
affect the performance or quality of 3D design software, unless it is incompatible or
outdated with the other components.
B. CPU. This is not a correct answer. A CPU is a component that executes instructions and
calculations for various programs on a PC. A CPU can affect the performance and quality
of 3D design software, but not as much as a graphics card. A CPU is more important for
tasks such as compiling, encoding, or multitasking, which are not specific to 3D design.
C. Power supply. This is not a correct answer. A power supply is a component that
converts AC power from the wall outlet to DC power for the PC components. A power
supply does not directly affect the performance or quality of 3D design software, unless it is
insufficient or faulty to provide enough power for the other components.
E. Memory. This is not a correct answer. Memory is a component that stores data
temporarily for fast access by the CPU and other components. Memory can affect the
performance and quality of 3D design software, but not as much as a graphics card.
Memory is more important for tasks such as loading, saving, or switching between
programs, which are not specific to 3D design.
Reference: System requirements | Substance 3D Designer1, 12 Best Free 3D Modeling
Software (For Beginners) 20232, System requirements for Autodesk 3ds Max 20213.
Question # 74
A user purchased a new smartphone and headset and is trying to connect them. Which ofthe following is the best way to connect the devices?
A. Enable pairing. B. Use a hotspot. C. Use NFC. D. Enable synchronization.
Answer: A
Explanation: The best way to connect the devices is A. Enable pairing.
Pairing is a process that allows two Bluetooth devices, such as a smartphone and a
headset, to communicate with each other wirelessly. Pairing creates a secure connection
between the devices and allows them to exchange data and audio signals. To pair the
devices, the user needs to enable Bluetooth on both devices, make them discoverable, and
select the desired device from the list of available devices. The user may also need to enter
a PIN code or confirm a passkey to complete the pairing process .
The other options are not the best ways to connect the devices. A hotspot is a feature that
allows a smartphone to share its cellular data connection with other devices via Wi-Fi,
Bluetooth, or USB. A hotspot can provide internet access to other devices, but it does not
allow them to communicate with each other directly. NFC stands for Near Field
Communication, which is a technology that allows two devices to exchange data by
bringing them close together (usually within 4 cm). NFC can be used to initiate pairing
between two Bluetooth devices, but it cannot establish a connection by itself.
Synchronization is a process that allows two devices to update and match their data, such
as contacts, calendars, photos, or music. Synchronization can be done via Wi-Fi,
Bluetooth, USB, or cloud services, but it requires an existing connection between the
devices.
Question # 75
A user's smartphone battery capacity has started going from full to empty within an hour.The user has not recently installed any new applications on the smartphone. An ITtechnician notices that the smartphone has very high network utilization and thinks thisissue might be related to the battery drain. Which of the following troubleshooting stepsshould the technician attempt next?
A. Disable Bluetooth. B. Connect the smartphone to a Wi-Fi network. C. Restart the smartphone. D. Update the mobile OS.
Answer: C
Explanation: The next troubleshooting step that the technician should attempt is to restart the smartphone. Restarting the smartphone can help resolve many common issues, such
as battery drain, network utilization, app crashes, or performance slowdowns. Restarting
the smartphone can do the following:
Clear the memory and cache of the smartphone, which can free up space and
speed up the device.
Close any background apps or processes that may be consuming battery or
network resources, such as syncing, updating, or streaming.
Reset the network settings and connections of the smartphone, which can improve
the signal strength and quality.
Refresh the operating system and the user interface of the smartphone, which can
fix any glitches or errors.
To restart the smartphone, the user can follow these steps:
Press and hold the power button of the smartphone until a menu appears on the
screen.
Tap the option that says Restart, Reboot, or Power off and on.
Wait for the smartphone to turn off and then turn on again.
Enter the PIN, password, or pattern to unlock the smartphone.
Check the battery level and the network utilization of the smartphone.
If restarting the smartphone does not solve the problem, the technician may need to try
other troubleshooting steps, such as updating the mobile OS, disabling Bluetooth, or
connecting the smartphone to a Wi-Fi network. However, restarting the smartphone is
usually the first and simplest step to try.
References:
How to stop "Mobile network standby" from draining my battery1
Battery life: Guide to everything that affects and drains your phone battery2
Mobile Network Standby Battery Drain; How To Fix It?3
Get the most life from your Android device’s battery4
How to Fix Battery Drain from Mobile Network on Galaxy S235
Question # 76
A technician is setting up a projector for a videoconferencing system. The laptop that thetechnician is using is set to the correct resolution. The projector is receiving a signal, butthe image is distorted. Which of the following most likely explains the issue?
A. The projector's aspect ratio is set incorrectly. B. The laptop's video card has failed. C. The projector's bulb is burned out. D. The display brightness needs to be adjusted.
Answer: A
Explanation: The most likely explanation for the distorted image on the projector is that the
projector’s aspect ratio is set incorrectly. The aspect ratio is the ratio of the width to the
height of the image, and it affects how the image is displayed on the screen. If the aspect
ratio of the projector does not match the aspect ratio of the laptop, the image may appear
stretched, squashed, cropped, or letterboxed.
To fix the distorted image, the technician should follow these steps:
Check the aspect ratio of the laptop and the projector. The aspect ratio of the
laptop can be found in the display settings of the operating system, such as
Windows or Mac OS. The aspect ratio of the projector can be found in the user
manual or the on-screen menu of the projector. Common aspect ratios are 4:3,
16:9, and 16:10.
Adjust the aspect ratio of the projector to match the aspect ratio of the laptop. The
technician can use the remote control or the buttons on the projector to access the
on-screen menu and select the appropriate aspect ratio option. Some projectors
may have a dedicated aspect ratio button on the remote control or the projector
itself.
Verify that the image is displayed correctly on the screen. The technician can use
the zoom, focus, or keystone buttons on the projector or the remote control to finetune
the image quality and alignment.
References:
How to Fix Projector Display Problems - Projectors Tab1
Correcting Distorted Projector Images - Projector Repair World Hyd2
How to Adjust the Aspect Ratio on a Projector - Lifewire
Question # 77
Which of the following models is an example of metered utilization?
A. Reserved instance B. Pay-as-you-go C. Subscription-based D. Multitenant
Answer: B
Explanation: Metered utilization is a pricing model for cloud computing services, where the
customer pays only for the amount of resources that are consumed, such as CPU time,
memory, storage, bandwidth, etc. The customer is billed based on the actual usage of the
resources, rather than a fixed or upfront fee. Metered utilization is also known as usagebased
pricing or pay-per-use12.
Pay-as-you-go is an example of metered utilization, where the customer pays for the cloud
resources on demand, without any long-term commitment or contract. The customer can scale up or down the resources as needed, and only pay for what is used. Pay-as-you-go is
a flexible and cost-effective option for customers who have unpredictable or variable
workloads, or who want to try out new services or features12.
The other options are not examples of metered utilization. Reserved instance is a pricing
model where the customer pays a discounted rate for a fixed amount of cloud resources for
a specified period of time, such as one or three years. The customer can reserve the
resources in advance, and benefit from lower costs and guaranteed availability. Reserved
instance is suitable for customers who have predictable or steady workloads, or who want
to optimize their budget12.
Subscription-based is a pricing model where the customer pays a fixed fee for a set of
cloud services or features for a certain period of time, such as monthly or annually. The
customer can access the services or features as much as needed, without worrying about
the usage or consumption of the resources. Subscription-based is suitable for customers
who want to have a consistent and predictable cost, or who want to access premium or
exclusive services or features12.
Multitenant is not a pricing model, but a cloud architecture where multiple customers share
the same physical or virtual resources, such as servers, databases, applications, etc. The
resources are isolated and secured for each customer, and the customers can benefit from
lower costs, higher scalability, and faster updates. Multitenant is a common characteristic
of public cloud services, where the cloud provider manages and maintains the resources
Cloud Computing and Virtualization, Section 6.2: Cloud Computing Concepts,
Page 241
Question # 78
When a user's workstation is turned on, a message displays indicating that the date andtime are incorrect. Other computers on the network do not display thismessage. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this issue?
A. The time server is misconfigured. B. The BIOS is not updated. C. The CMOS battery is discharged. D. The CPU is slow.
Answer: C
Explanation: The CMOS (complementary metal-oxide-semiconductor) is a small chip on
the motherboard that stores the BIOS settings, including the date and time. The CMOS
battery is a coin cell battery that provides power to the CMOS chip when the computer is
turned off, so that the BIOS settings are not lost. If the CMOS battery is discharged, the
CMOS chip will lose its data, and the date and time will be reset to the default values. This
will cause a message to display indicating that the date and time are incorrect when the
computer is turned on. The other computers on the network do not display this message
because they have functional CMOS batteries. The most likely cause of this issue is the
CMOS battery is discharged, and it needs to be replaced with a new one12.
Question # 79
A technician is troubleshooting a PC that has been experiencing random system crashes.The technician has already checked the hard drive and the RAM, and both were in goodworking order. Which of the following steps should the technician take next to troubleshootthe system crashes?
A. Test the fan speed. B. Disable the USB ports C. Replace the PSU D. Decrease the RAM timings.
Answer: C
Explanation:
A PSU (power supply unit) is a component that converts the AC power from the wall outlet
into DC power that the PC components can use. A faulty or failing PSU can cause random
system crashes, as well as other problems such as noise, overheating, or no power at all.
A PSU can fail due to various reasons, such as age, dust, power surges, or poor quality.
To troubleshoot a PSU, the technician can use a multimeter to measure the voltage output
of the PSU connectors. The voltage should be within the acceptable range of the
specifications. For example, the 12V rail should be between 11.4V and 12.6V. If the voltage
is too low or too high, the PSU is likely defective and needs to be replaced.
Alternatively, the technician can try swapping the PSU with a known good one and see if
the system crashes persist. If the system works fine with a different PSU, then the original
PSU is the problem and should be replaced.
The other options are not likely to fix the random system crashes. Testing the fan speed
may help to diagnose overheating issues, but it is not related to the PSU. Disabling the
USB ports may help to eliminate potential conflicts with USB devices, but it is not related to
the PSU. Decreasing the RAM timings may help to improve performance and stability, but it
is not related to the PSU.
References:
Fix Random PC Crashes: 10 Steps to Identify and Fix Issues
Why Does Windows Crash? The 9 Most Common Reasons
Question # 80
A user called the help desk to request assistance with selecting appropriate storage toback up a large collection of DVDs and photos in the mosteconomical way. Which of the following should the help desk recommend?
A. 5,400rpm HDD B. M.2 NVMe SSD C. SAS RAID array D. Optical media
Answer: D
Explanation: Optical media, such as CDs, DVDs, or Blu-ray discs, are a suitable choice for
backing up a large collection of DVDs and photos in the most economical way. Optical
media are inexpensive, widely available, and have a long shelf life. They can store large
amounts of data, up to 50GB on a dual-layer Blu-ray disc, and can be easily labeled and
organized. Optical media are also less prone to mechanical failure, data corruption, or
accidental deletion than hard disk drives (HDDs) or solid state drives (SSDs).
The other options are not as economical or suitable for this purpose. A 5,400rpm HDD is a
slow and noisy type of HDD that has moving parts that can wear out or break. A HDD also
consumes more power and generates more heat than an SSD. A M.2 NVMe SSD is a fast
and compact type of SSD that uses a PCIe interface to transfer data. However, an SSD is
more expensive than an HDD or optical media, and has a limited number of write cycles
before it degrades. A SAS RAID array is a complex and costly system that uses multiple
HDDs or SSDs connected by a Serial Attached SCSI (SAS) interface to provide
redundancy, performance, or both. A RAID array requires a RAID controller, a compatible
motherboard, and a dedicated power supply.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
Best ways to backup photos of 2023 | TechRadar3
Best external hard drives in 2023: clever drives for added storage and …4
DVD Storage Ideas | Remodelaholic5
Question # 81
A user reports being unable to access the network. A help desk technician notices anAPIPA on the user's workstation. Which of the following services should the technicianinvestigate first?
A. RADIUS B. DHCP C. AAA D. DNS
Answer: B
Explanation:
DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a network service that automatically
assigns IP addresses and other configuration parameters to devices that request them.
DHCP simplifies the management of IP addresses and avoids conflicts and errors67. An
APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing) is a feature of Windows that assigns a default IP
address in the range of 169.254.x.x to a device when it cannot obtain a valid IP address
from a DHCP server. An APIPA indicates that there is a problem with the DHCP service or
the network connectivity between the device and the DHCP server89. Therefore, the
technician should investigate the DHCP service first to check if it is running, configured
correctly, and has enough available IP addresses to assign. The other services are not
directly related to the IP address assignment. RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User
Service) is a protocol that provides centralized authentication, authorization, and
accounting for network access10. AAA (Authentication, Authorization, and Accounting) is a
framework that controls the access and usage of network resources11. DNS (Domain
Name System) is a service that resolves domain names into IP addresses12.
References
6: What is DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol)? - Definition from WhatIs.com
7: How DHCP works - Windows Server | Microsoft Docs
8: What is APIPA (Automatic Private IP Addressing)? - Definition from WhatIs.com
9: How to Fix an IP Address Conflict
10: What is RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service)? - Definition from
WhatIs.com
11: What is AAA (authentication, authorization, and accounting)? - Definition from
WhatIs.com
12: What is DNS (Domain Name System)? - Definition from WhatIs.com
Question # 82
Which of the following is used to define a range of IP addresses available to assign usingDHCP?
A. Scope B. Address C. Lease D. Reservation
Answer: A
Explanation: A scope is a term used to define a range of IP addresses available to assign
using DHCP. DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, and it is a protocol
that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to
devices on a network. A scope defines the start and end IP addresses, as well as other
options, such as subnet mask, default gateway, and DNS servers.
Question # 83
Which of the following provides the highest level of isolation from the host operating system? Type Il hypervisor Resource pooling Hardware-assisted virtualization
A. Single-node clustering
Answer: A
Explanation: A type II hypervisor is a software application that runs on top of a host
operating system and creates virtual machines that are isolated from the host. A type II
hypervisor provides the highest level of isolation from the host operating system because it
does not have direct access to the hardware resources and relies on the host operating
system for drivers and services. A type II hypervisor also allows the guest operating
systems to run different types of operating systems than the host.
References: The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook,
page 223
Question # 84
A user keeps a company-provided camera's battery charger plugged into a docking stationat a desk. Company policy requires that USB devices be identified and approved byinstalled peripheral security software. A technician is unable to add a unique identifier tothe battery charger's security software. Which of the following should the technician do?c
A. Provide a USB to AC adapter for the battery charger. B. Add a powered USB hub to the docking station. C. Disable the peripheral security software for this user only. D. Replace the battery charger with a USB device that has a unique identifier.
Answer: A
Explanation: The problem in this scenario is that the battery charger is not a USB device,
but a device that plugs into a USB port to draw power. Therefore, it does not have a unique
identifier that can be recognized by the peripheral security software, which is designed to
prevent unauthorized USB devices from accessing the company’s network or data. The
security software cannot add the battery charger to its whitelist, and may block its power
supply or generate alerts.
The best solution for this problem is to provide a USB to AC adapter for the battery
charger, which is a device that converts the USB power output to an AC power input that
can be plugged into a wall outlet. This way, the battery charger does not need to connect to
the docking station or the computer, and does not trigger the peripheral security software.
The user can still charge the camera’s battery without compromising the company’s
security policy.
The other options are not advisable because they either do not solve the problem or create
new risks. Option B, adding a powered USB hub to the docking station, may not work if the
security software also monitors the hub’s ports and detects the battery charger as an
unknown device. Option C, disabling the peripheral security software for this user only, is a
very bad idea because it exposes the user’s computer and the company’s network to
potential attacks from malicious USB devices. Option D, replacing the battery charger with
a USB device that has a unique identifier, is unnecessary and costly, and may not be
A technician is creating a new RAID array for a customer After interviewing the customer,the technician decides to implement a RAID array of striping without parity. Which of thefollowing reasons would lead the technician to choose striping without parity instead ofstriping with parity?
A. Uptime is the customer's biggest concern B. Speed is the most important consideration. C. Redundancy and speed are equally important D. Available storage space needs to be maximized
Answer: B
Explanation: Speed is the most important consideration. Striping without parity, also
known as RAID 0, is a RAID configuration that splits data across multiple disks without any
redundancy. This improves the performance of read and write operations, as multiple disks
can work in parallel. However, this also increases the risk of data loss, as any disk failure
will result in losing all data on the array. Therefore, striping without parity is suitable for
situations where speed is prioritized over reliability. According to the CompTIA Core1 objectives, one of the advantages of RAID 0 is increased speed. A research paper on RAID
performance also confirms that RAID 0 has the highest throughput among all RAID levels.
Question # 87
The Wi-Fi network in the office is experiencing slow connection speeds. Which of thefollowing should the technician check first on the access point?
A. Transmit power settings B. Security settings C. Firmware version D. Location
Answer: A
Explanation:
The transmit power settings of the access point determine how strong the Wi-Fi signal is. If
the transmit power is too low, the Wi-Fi network will have slow connection speeds and poor
coverage. If the transmit power is too high, the Wi-Fi network will interfere with other
nearby networks and devices, causing congestion and performance issues. Therefore, the
technician should check the transmit power settings first and adjust them to an optimal
level for the office environment.
References:
•8 Reasons Why Your Internet is Slow (and How to Fix It), section “You have weak Wi-Fi
signals”.
•6 Things Slowing Down Your Wi-Fi (And What to Do About Them) - How-To Geek, section
“Channel Congestion Dings Wi-Fi Performance”.
Question # 88
An administrator is replacing a cable that uses a DB9 connector VVhich of the followingcables is the administrator replacing?
A. Parallel B. Serial C. Optical D. USB
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Serial. A serial cable is a type of cable that can be used to connect devices that use serial
communication, which is a method of sending data one bit at a time over a single wire.
Serial cables are often used for console access to network devices, such as routers,
switches, firewalls, or servers, when other methods of connection, such as SSH (Secure
Shell), are not available or not working.
A DB9 connector is a type of connector that has nine pins and is commonly used for serial
cables. DB stands for D-subminiature, which is a family of connectors that have a Dshaped
metal shield and different numbers of pins. DB9 connectors are also known as DE-
9 connectors, as they belong to the E size category of D-subminiature connectors. DB9
connectors can support various serial standards, such as RS-232, RS-422, or RS-485.
A parallel cable is a type of cable that can be used to connect devices that use parallel
communication, which is a method of sending data multiple bits at a time over multiple
wires. Parallel cables are often used for connecting printers or scanners to computers, but
they are not commonly used for network devices or serial connections.
An optical cable is a type of cable that can be used to transmit data using light signals over
fiber-optic strands. Optical cables can offer high-speed, high-bandwidth, and lowinterference
data transmission over long distances. Optical cables are often used for
network communication, such as Ethernet, or audio/video transmission, such as HDMI or
TOSLINK.
A USB cable is a type of cable that can be used to connect devices that use the Universal
Serial Bus (USB) standard, which is a protocol that allows data and power transmission
between devices. USB cables can support various types of devices, such as keyboards,
mice, cameras, flash drives, or chargers. USB cables have different versions and
connectors, such as USB-A, USB-B, USB-C, or Micro-USB.
Therefore, the only cable that uses a DB9 connector is a serial cable. For more information
about cables and connectors, you can refer to the following web search results: [What Is a
Serial Cable?], [What Is a Parallel Cable?], [What Is an Optical Cable?], [What Is a USB
Cable?].
Question # 89
A user can make and receive voice calls but cannot send or receive MMS text messageson a smartphone. Which of the following is the most likely cause of the issue?
A. The mobile data service is disabled. B. The SIM card is defective. C. The device is outside the cellular coverage area. D. Airplane mode is enabled.
Answer: A
Explanation:
MMS (Multimedia Messaging Service) is a type of text message that can include images,
videos, audio, or other media files. Unlike SMS (Short Message Service), which only uses
cellular networks, MMS requires mobile data service to send and receive messages.
Therefore, if the mobile data service is disabled on the smartphone, the user will not be
able to send or receive MMS messages, even if they can make and receive voice calls
using the cellular network.
References
•What is MMS messaging? How to send and receive MMS messages on your iPhone or
A systems administrator hears a clicking noise coming from a storage array that has aRAID configuration_ No LEOS are illuminated on the array but the logs show several harddrive errors. Which of the following should the systems administrator do to quickly eliminatethe clicking?
A. Reinstall the drive. B. Replace the bad drive. C. Reset the RAID software D. Run a chkdek on the drive.
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. Replace the bad drive.
A clicking noise coming from a hard drive is a sign of a mechanical failure, which can cause
data loss or corruption. Replacing the bad drive as soon as possible is the best way to
prevent further damage and restore the RAID array to a healthy state. Reinstalling the
drive, resetting the RAID software, or running a chkdek on the drive will not fix the
underlying hardware problem and may even worsen the situation. Therefore, option B is
noises indicate that the hard drive is failing mechanically.”
RAID configuration on Linux - Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud, section “Replace a
failed volume in a RAID 0 array”: “If one of the volumes in your RAID 0 array fails,
you must replace it as soon as possible to avoid data loss.”
Question # 91
A company has implemented a policy that allows employees to use personal devices toperform work duties. Which of the following policies should the technician activate toprotect company information?
A. MFD B. MAM C. MFA D. MDM
Answer: D
Explanation: MDM (Mobile Device Management) is a policy that allows the technician to
remotely manage, secure, and monitor the personal devices that employees use for work
purposes. MDM can enforce security settings, such as passwords, encryption, and
antivirus software, on the personal devices. MDM can also remotely wipe or lock the
devices in case of loss, theft, or termination of employment. MDM can protect company
information by preventing unauthorized access, data leakage, or malware infection on the
personal devices.
References
What is Mobile Device Management (MDM)?
Chapter 2: Networking
Question # 92
After a required operating system upgrade on a mobile deuce, a user's external monitor nolonger works. Which of the following should a technician do to fix this issue?
A. Install the latest graphics drivers. B. Replace the monitor C. Restore the operating system to the previous version. D. Reseat the external video adapter.
Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is A. Install the latest graphics drivers.
The most likely cause of the external monitor not working after an operating system
upgrade is that the graphics drivers are incompatible with the new version. Installing the
latest graphics drivers from the manufacturer’s website or using Windows Update can
resolve this issue. Replacing the monitor, restoring the operating system to the previous
version, or reseating the external video adapter are not effective solutions for this problem.
References: You can find more information about troubleshooting external monitor
connections in Windows 101 and Windows 112. You can also learn how to update the
display driver using Device Manager2.
Question # 93
An administrator wants to replace a fiber-optic cable. Which of the following should theadministrator most likely use?
A. LC B. Bayonet Neill Concelman C. RJ45 D. DB9
Answer: A
Explanation: LC stands for Lucent Connector, which is a type of fiber-optic connector that
uses a push-pull mechanism to connect and disconnect the cable. LC connectors are
small, compact, and widely used for high-density applications, such as data centers,
servers, and networks. LC connectors have a 1.25 mm ferrule that can support both singlemode
and multimode fibers.
Question # 94
A technician is attempting to log in to a local company portal. When the technician typesthe URL into the address bar, the browser is unable to resolve and display the web page.The technician tries at another workstation, and the result is the same. Other web pagesare not having any issues. Which of the following should the technician check first?
A. DHCP reservations B. Static IP addresses C. Default gateway D. DNS entries
Answer: D
Explanation: The technician is unable to access the company portal website, but other
websites work fine. This suggests an issue with resolving the specific URL of the company
portal, which is a function of DNS. Here's why other options are not the most likely cause:
DHCP reservations: This is not relevant as the issue persists even when the technician
tries a different workstation, indicating a problem beyond individual device configuration.
Static IP addresses: Similar to DHCP reservations, static IPs are not likely the cause as
both affected workstations are experiencing the issue.
Default gateway: While the default gateway is necessary for internet access, other
websites are working, making it less likely to be the root cause.
Which of the following DNS records is used to look up the IP address assigned to a domainname?
A. A B. MX C. NS D. SPF
Answer: A
Explanation:
A DNS record is a data entry in a DNS server that maps a domain name to a specific value,
such as an IP address, a mail server, a name server, or a text string. There are different
types of DNS records for different purposes, and each type has a specific format and
syntax12.
The A record, also known as the address record, is the most common type of DNS record,
and it is used to look up the IP address assigned to a domain name. The A record maps a
domain name to an IPv4 address, which is a 32-bit numerical value that identifies a device
on the internet. For example, the A record for www.google.com is 172.217.14.20612. The other options are not correct because they are not used to look up the IP address
assigned to a domain name. The MX record, also known as the mail exchange record, is
used to specify the mail servers that handle the email for a domain name. The MX record
maps a domain name to a priority value and a host name of a mail server. For example, the
MX record for gmail.com is 10 alt1.gmail-smtp-in.l.google.com12.
The NS record, also known as the name server record, is used to delegate a domain name
to a set of authoritative name servers. The NS record maps a domain name to a host name
of a name server that can provide authoritative answers for the domain name and its
subdomains. For example, the NS record for example.com is ns1.example.com12.
The SPF record, also known as the sender policy framework record, is used to prevent
email spoofing and spamming by validating the sender’s identity. The SPF record maps a
domain name to a text string that specifies the authorized mail servers and IP addresses
that can send email on behalf of the domain name. For example, the SPF record for
microsoft.com is v=spf1 include:spf.protection.outlook.com -all12.
Chapter 2: Networking, Slide 2.6: DNS Configuration
Question # 96
A user would like a removable storage device that is secure. portable, and does not contain moving parts. Which of the following devices would be the most suitable?
A. HDD B. NAS C. SSD D. SAN
Answer: C
Explanation: An SSD (solid state drive) is a removable storage device that uses flash
memory to store data. It is secure, portable, and does not contain moving parts, which
makes it more reliable and durable than other types of storage devices. An HDD (hard disk
drive) is not suitable, as it contains spinning platters and read/write heads that are prone to
damage and data loss. A NAS (network attached storage) and a SAN (storage area
network) are not removable devices, as they are connected to a network and provide
An engineer discovers the reason a user is unable to access the internet on a companylaptop is because the RJ45 port failed. Which of the following should the engineer do toimmediately restore network connectivity?
A. Update the Ethernet driver. B. Connect to the WAP. C. Replace the NIC. D. Resolder the network connector.
Answer: B
Question # 98
Which of the following translates a hostname to IP addresses?
A. AAA B. DHCP C. DNS D. UTM
Answer: C
Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name System, which is a network service that
translates hostnames to IP addresses. Hostnames are human-readable names that identify
devices or services on the Internet, such as www.google.com or mail.yahoo.com. IP
addresses are numerical identifiers that specify the location of devices or services on the
Internet, such as 172.217.14.206 or 98.137.11.163. DNS allows users to access websites
or services by using hostnames instead of IP addresses, which are easier to remember
and type. DNS also allows hostnames to change their IP addresses without affecting the
users, which can improve performance and security.
References: The following web search results provide more information about DNS and
how it translates hostnames to IP addresses:
What is DNS? | How DNS Works | Cloudflare: This article explains the concept of DNS, its
components, its functions, and its benefits.
Hostname vs. IP - address - Stack Overflow: This answer compares the differences
between hostnames and IP addresses, and how DNS resolves them.
How DNS Works: Domain Name System(DNS): This article illustrates how DNS works with
diagrams and examples.
Question # 99
A user reports that a projector was previously working, but the screen now displays thefollowing error message: No Source Found. Which of thefollowing actions should the technician take first? (Select two).
A. Check the projector bulb and replace it with a new one. B. Verify the projector settings and make sure the correct input is selected. C. Replace the video cable and check the laptop settings. D. Check the laptop display settings and set them to extend/duplicate. E. Verify the projector is turned on. F. Check the projector settings and the laptop for the correct resolution.
Answer: B,D
Explanation:
One of the possible causes of the error message “No Source Found” is that the projector is
not receiving any signal from the connected device, such as a laptop1. This could be due to
an incorrect input source selected on the projector or an improper display setting on the
laptop. Therefore, the first actions that the technician should take are to verify the projector
settings and make sure the correct input is selected, and to check the laptop display
settings and set them to extend/duplicate23.
Question # 100
A user called the help desk to report an issue with a laptop. Recently, the user has beenunable to click the buttons on the track pad or press some keys on the keyboard. Thetechnician inspector the laptop but does not find any physical damage caused by the user.Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?
A. Damaged digitizer B. Swollen battery C. Distended capacitors D. Failed accelerometer
Answer: B
Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the laptop has a swollen battery,
which is a condition where the battery expands due to gas buildup inside the cells. A
swollen battery can cause physical damage to the laptop, such as pushing against the
track pad or keyboard and preventing them from functioning properly. The technician
should inspect the battery and replace it if it is swollen. A damaged digitizer is not the
cause of the issue, as the digitizer is a component that converts touch input into digital
signals, and it does not affect the track pad or keyboard. Distended capacitors are not the
cause either, as capacitors are electronic components that store electric charge, and they
do not affect the track pad or keyboard. A failed accelerometer is not the cause as well, as
an accelerometer is a sensor that measures acceleration, and it does not affect the track
A user submitted a help desk ticket to report that the Wi-Fi connection drops every time themicrowave is used. A technician suspects the issue is related to interference. Which of thefollowing should the technician do to provide the BEST long-term solution for the issue?
A. Change the Wi-Fi operation channel. B. Configure the Wi-Fi AP to 5GHz. C. Increase the power output of the AP. D. Change the SSID to hidden.
Answer: B
Explanation: The issue is related to interference from the microwave, which operates at
2.4GHz, the same frequency as some Wi-Fi channels. To avoid this interference, the
technician should configure the Wi-Fi access point (AP) to use a 5GHz band, which has
more channels and less interference from other devices. Changing the Wi-Fi operation
channel may not solve the problem if the microwave interferes with multiple channels.
Increasing the power output of the AP may not overcome the interference and may cause
more interference to other devices. Changing the SSID to hidden does not affect the
interference at all, and may make it harder for users to connect to the network. References:
A user's desktop computer is connected via an Ethernet cable and often drops the connection. When the computer does connect, the network speeds arenormal. No other network users on the same floor are reporting issues. The administratorverified that all authentication systems are working as intended andthe Ethernet cable was replaced. Which of the following is the most likely cause of theissue?
A. Slow network speeds B. Port flapping C. Limited connectivity D. 802.1X configuration
Answer: B
Explanation: Port flapping, also known as link flapping, is a network issue that causes a
switch port’s state to fluctuate between up and down within short periods of time. This
instability affects network connectivity and performance. Port flapping can be caused by
various factors, such as faulty cables, hardware issues, configuration issues, or other
network issues12. In this scenario, the user’s desktop computer is connected via an
Ethernet cable and often drops the connection, while no other network users on the same
floor are reporting issues. The administrator verified that all authentication systems are
working as intended and the Ethernet cable was replaced. Therefore, the most likely cause
of the issue is port flapping on the switch port that connects to the user’s computer.
References
1: Port flapping – Definition, common causes, and troubleshoot …
2: Solved: Port Flapping Issue - Cisco Community
Question # 103
Which of the following wireless standards can operate in the 6GHz frequency range?
A. 802.11ac B. 802.11ax C. 802.11g D. 802.11n
Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is B. 802.11ax.
802.11ax, also known as Wi-Fi 6 or Wi-Fi 6E, is the latest wireless standard that can
operate in the 6GHz frequency range. This standard was approved by the IEEE in
February 2021 and offers higher throughput, lower latency, and improved efficiency
compared to previous standards1
The 6GHz frequency range spans from 5.925 GHz to 7.125 GHz and provides 1200 MHz
of additional spectrum for Wi-Fi devices. This means that Wi-Fi 6E can support more
channels, wider bandwidths, and less interference than the existing 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz
bands. Wi-Fi 6E can access up to 59 20-MHz channels, 29 40-MHz channels, 14 80-MHz
channels, or 7 160-MHz channels in the 6GHz band1
802.11ac, also known as Wi-Fi 5, is the previous wireless standard that can only operate in
the 5GHz frequency range. It was approved by the IEEE in December 2013 and offers
faster speeds and better performance than older standards. However, it cannot use the
new spectrum in the 6GHz band and has limited channel availability and capacity in the
crowded 5GHz band2
802.11g and 802.11n are older wireless standards that can only operate in the 2.4GHz
frequency range. They were approved by the IEEE in June 2003 and October 2009,
respectively, and offer lower speeds and performance than newer standards. They also
suffer from more interference and congestion in the saturated 2.4GHz band, which is
shared by many other devices and technologies32
Question # 104
Which of the following is a characteristic of cloud computing that prioritizes reliability?
A. Shared resources B. High availability C. Rapid elasticity D. Hybrid
Answer: B
Explanation: High availability is a characteristic of cloud computing that prioritizes
reliability. High availability means that cloud services can be accessed without interruption
or failure, even in the event of a disaster or a hardware malfunction. This is achieved by
using redundant components, backup systems, load balancing, and failover mechanisms.
According to the CompTIA Core1 objectives, one of the benefits of cloud computing is high
availability. A research paper on cloud reliability also defines high availability as the ability
to provide continuous service despite faults or failures.
Question # 105
Which of the following display types is available for laptops?
A. OLED B. CRT C. DLP D. Plasma
Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is A. OLED.
OLED stands for Organic Light-emitting Diode, and it is one of the three display types
available for laptops, along with TN (Twisted Nematic) and IPS (In-Plane Switching)
panels1. OLED displays use organic compounds that emit light when an electric current is
applied, unlike LCD displays that use a backlight to illuminate the pixels. OLED displays have several advantages over LCD displays, such as higher contrast, wider viewing
angles, faster response times, and lower power consumption2. However, OLED displays
are also more expensive, less common, and more prone to burn-in than LCD displays2.
CRT (Cathode Ray Tube), DLP (Digital Light Processing), and Plasma are not display
types for laptops. CRT is an old technology that uses a vacuum tube to project an image on
a phosphor screen. CRT monitors are bulky, heavy, and consume a lot of power3. DLP is a
technology that uses a digital micromirror device and a light source to project an image on
a screen or a wall. DLP is mainly used for projectors, not laptops4. Plasma is a technology
that uses gas-filled cells that emit light when an electric current is applied. Plasma displays
are mainly used for large-screen TVs, not laptops.
References:
1: Laptop Display 101: Display Types (TN, IPS, or OLED)
2: OLED vs LCD: which screen tech should you choose for your next laptop? | TechRadar
3: What is a CRT Monitor? - Definition from Techopedia
4: What is DLP (Digital Light Processing)? - Definition from WhatIs.com
What is plasma display? - Definition from WhatIs.com
Question # 106
A technician is setting up a home network with the following requirements:· Automatic distribution of IP addresses. Internet accessWhich of the following should the technician configure? (Select two).
A. DHCP B. APIPA C. VPN D. Public IP addresses E. Gateway F. Static IP addresses
Answer: A,E
Explanation: DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) is a protocol that allows a
device to automatically obtain an IP address and other network settings from a DHCP
server, such as a home router. This simplifies the network configuration and avoids IP
address conflicts. DHCP is a common requirement for home networks that have multiple
devices that need Internet access.
A gateway is a device that connects two different networks, such as a home network and
the Internet. A gateway usually performs routing functions, which means it determines the
best path for packets to reach their destination. A gateway also often performs NAT
(Network Address Translation), which allows multiple devices on a home network to share
a single public IP address. A gateway is a necessary requirement for home networks that
need Internet access.
References
Understanding DHCP on Home Networks
Basic home gateway services: DHCP, DNS, NAT
IP Addresses on Home Networks – A Beginner’s Guide
Question # 107
A technician received a help desk ticket from a user who is unable to browse the internet_Which of the following troubleshooting steps should the technician perform first?
A. Establish a plan of action. B. Document the findings. C. Test the theory. D. Identify the problem
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. Identify the problem.
The first troubleshooting step that the technician should perform is to identify the problem.
This means that the technician should gather information from the user and the system,
and analyze the symptoms and the error messages to determine the nature and the scope
of the issue. Identifying the problem can help to define the expected outcome, establish a
theory of probable cause, and plan a course of action.
The other options are not the first troubleshooting steps, but they are part of the
troubleshooting process that should be performed after identifying the problem.
Establishing a plan of action (option A) means that the technician should devise a strategy
to resolve the issue, based on the theory of probable cause and the available resources.
Testing the theory (option C) means that the technician should verify if the theory of
probable cause is correct, by performing tests or experiments on the system or its
components. Documenting the findings (option B) means that the technician should record
and report the results of each troubleshooting step, as well as the final solution and
outcome.
For more information about troubleshooting steps and best practices, you can refer to the
following web search results: [Troubleshooting Steps for Beginners], [Troubleshooting
Methodology], [How to Troubleshoot Like an Expert].
Question # 108
A new VolP solution is being implemented at a corporate office for more than 200 users. The new VolP devices do not require AC adapters at the users' desks. Which of thefollowing network devices should a technician purchase?
A. Firewall B. Power injector C. PoE switch D. Router
Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is C. PoE switch.
A PoE switch is a network device that can provide both data and power to other devices
over an Ethernet cable. PoE stands for Power over Ethernet, which is a technology that
allows electrical power to be transmitted along with data on twisted pair Ethernet cabling.
This eliminates the need for separate power supplies or AC adapters at the users’ desks,
as the VoIP devices can receive power from the PoE switch12.
A firewall is a network device that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network
traffic based on predefined security rules. It does not provide power to other devices1.
A power injector is a device that adds electrical power to an Ethernet cable for a single
device. It is not suitable for a large number of devices, as it would require one power
injector per device1.
A router is a network device that connects multiple networks and forwards data packets
between them. It does not provide power to other devices1.
Question # 109
Which of the following describes the difference between a DNS server and a DHCPserver?
A. DNS is used for address translation, while DHCP is used for IP address assignment. B. DNS is used for routing, while DHCP is used for name resolution. C. DNS only assigns private IP addresses, while DHCP only assigns public IP addresses. D. DNS is used to route traffic between networks, while DHCP is used to allocate subnets.
Answer: A
Explanation: DNS stands for Domain Name System, and it is a network service that
translates human-readable names (such as www.google.com) into numerical IP addresses
(such as 172.217.14.206) that identify the location of the web servers on the internet. DNS
also allows reverse lookup, which means finding the domain name associated with a given
IP address. DNS servers are responsible for maintaining a database of domain names and
their corresponding IP addresses, and responding to queries from clients who want to
resolve a name to an address or vice versa12.
DHCP stands for Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol, and it is a network service that
automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters (such as
subnet mask, default gateway, DNS server, etc.) to devices that join a network. DHCP
servers are responsible for managing a pool of IP addresses and leasing them to clients for
a specified duration. DHCP servers also renew or release the IP addresses when the lease
expires or the client disconnects from the network34.
The difference between DNS and DHCP is that DNS is used for address translation, which
means converting domain names to IP addresses and vice versa, while DHCP is used for
IP address assignment, which means providing IP addresses and other network settings to
devices that need to communicate on a network.
References:
DNS Configuration – CompTIA A+ 220-1101 – 2.6
DHCP Configuration - CompTIA A+ 220-1101 - 2.6 - Professor Messer IT
Certification Training Courses
CompTIA A+ 220-1101 – 2.6 - Professor Messer IT Certification …
A cloud engineer, who is designing a cloud architecture, needs to ensure the solution isable to immediately fail over to another region in case of an outage and also scale up in theevent of high utilization. Which of the following should the engineer Implement? (Selecttwo).
A. High availability B. Elasticity C. Cold storage D. Machine learning E. Metered utilization F. Virtualization
Answer: A,B
Explanation: The answer is A. High availability and B. Elasticity.
High availability is the ability of a system to remain operational and accessible with minimal
or no downtime, even in the event of failures, disasters, or disruptions. High availability can
be achieved by designing a system that has redundancy, fault tolerance, and disaster
recovery capabilities. For example, a cloud engineer can design a system that replicates
data and resources across multiple regions, zones, or availability domains, and uses load
balancing and failover mechanisms to distribute the workload and handle failures
gracefully12.
Elasticity is the ability of a system to scale up or down automatically in response to
changes in demand or utilization. Elasticity can be achieved by designing a system that can
dynamically allocate and deallocate resources based on predefined metrics, policies, or
triggers. For example, a cloud engineer can design a system that uses auto-scaling groups,
horizontal or vertical scaling strategies, and on-demand or spot instances to optimize the
performance and cost of the system32.
By implementing high availability and elasticity, a cloud engineer can ensure that the
solution is able to immediately fail over to another region in case of an outage and also
scale up in the event of high utilization. These are two important aspects of building reliable
and scalable cloud architectures. Therefore, options A and B are the correct answers.
Question # 111
A graphic designer wants to upgrade to the fastest possible RAM for a desktop workstation.Which of the following types of RAM would be best for the designer to use?
A. DDR2 SDRAM B. DDR3 SDRAM C. DDR4 SDRAM D. DDR5 SDRAM
Answer: D
Explanation: DDR5 SDRAM (Double Data Rate 5 Synchronous Dynamic Random-Access
Memory) is the latest and fastest type of RAM for desktop workstations as of 2023. DDR5
SDRAM offers higher speeds, lower power consumption, greater capacity, and improved
reliability than previous generations of DDR SDRAM. DDR5 SDRAM can operate at
frequencies up to 8400 MHz, compared to 3200 MHz for DDR4 SDRAM, which means it
can transfer data faster and more efficiently. DDR5 SDRAM also supports dual-channel
memory, which allows two memory modules to work together and double the bandwidth.
DDR5 SDRAM is compatible with the latest Intel and AMD processors that support the
DDR5 standard.
The other options are not as fast or suitable for a desktop workstation. DDR2 SDRAM,
DDR3 SDRAM, and DDR4 SDRAM are older and slower types of RAM that have lower
frequencies, higher voltages, and lower capacities than DDR5 SDRAM. DDR2 SDRAM,
DDR3 SDRAM, and DDR4 SDRAM are not compatible with the latest processors that
support DDR5 SDRAM, and require different motherboards and slots. DDR2 SDRAM,
DDR3 SDRAM, and DDR4 SDRAM are more suitable for older or budget systems that do
not require high performance or memory-intensive applications.
References:
The best RAM 2023: top memory for your PC1
The best RAM for gaming 2023: Blazing-fast speeds for your PC2
What RAM Speed Do I Need? [2023 Guide] - GamingScan3
Crucial RAM Memory for Desktop Computers4
Question # 112
Which of the following controls the flow of users connecting to web server farms andprevents overutilization on any individual server?
A. Firewall B. Honeypot C. Load balancer D. Spam gateway
Answer: C
Explanation:
A load balancer is a device or software that distributes network traffic across multiple
servers or resources, such as web server farms, to optimize performance, reliability, and
scalability. A load balancer controls the flow of users connecting to web server farms and
prevents overutilization on any individual server by using various algorithms, such as round robin, least connections, or weighted distribution. A load balancer can also provide health
checks, failover, caching, compression, encryption, and other features to enhance the user
experience and security.
Question # 113
A technician is troubleshooting a computer that has a loud system fan and randomlyfreezes and reboots. Which of the following is the most likely cause of these issues?
A. Failing hard drive B. Defective power supply C. Incompatible hardware D. Overheating processor
Answer: D
Explanation: An overheating processor is the most likely cause of a computer that has a
loud system fan and randomly freezes and reboots. A processor generates heat when it
performs calculations, and if the heat is not dissipated properly, it can damage the
processor or cause it to malfunction. A loud system fan indicates that the fan is working
harder to cool down the processor, but it may not be enough to prevent overheating. A computer that freezes and reboots randomly is a common symptom of an overheating
processor, as the system tries to protect itself from further damage by shutting down or
restarting.
The other options are not as likely to cause these issues. A failing hard drive may cause
data loss, corruption, or slow performance, but it does not affect the system fan or the
processor temperature. A defective power supply may cause the computer to shut down
unexpectedly, but it does not cause the system fan to be loud or the processor to overheat.
Incompatible hardware may cause the computer to fail to boot, display errors, or crash, but
it does not cause the system fan to be loud or the processor to overheat.
To troubleshoot and resolve an overheating processor issue, the technician should check
and clean the air vents, provide proper ventilation, apply thermal paste, replace the fan or
the heat sink, or upgrade the processor if necessary. The technician should also update the
BIOS and the device drivers, adjust the power settings, and monitor the system
temperature using diagnostic tools.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
How to Troubleshoot Fan Issues | Dell US3
Why your laptop fan is loud and how to fix it | Asurion4
HP Notebook PCs - Fan is noisy and spins constantly (Windows)5
Question # 114
Which of the following wireless networking protocols will support both 2.4GHz and 5GHzdevices?
A. 802.11ac B. 802.11 ax C. 802.11b D. 802.11g
Answer: B
Explanation: 802.11 ax is a wireless networking protocol that supports both 2.4GHz and
5GHz devices, as well as backward compatibility with previous 802.11 standards. 802.11
ax offers higher data rates, lower latency, increased capacity, and improved power
efficiency than previous protocols. It is also known as Wi-Fi 6 or High Efficiency Wireless
Which of the following is the primary function of a DNS service?
A. To dynamically assign network addresses to hosts B. To translate domain names to IP addresses C. To authenticate users to remote servers D. To serve files over the network
Answer: B
Question # 118
A technician is trying to fix a computer that fails to boot even when all the RAM is removed.Which of the following should the technician do next to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Inspect the motherboard for swollen capacitors. B. Replace the CMOS battery_ C. Swap the power supply if it is inoperable. D. Check to see if the HDD power connectors are well seated
Answer: C
Explanation: The next step that the technician should do to troubleshoot the issue is C.
Swap the power supply if it is inoperable.
A power supply is a device that converts the alternating current (AC) from the wall outlet
into direct current (DC) that the computer components can use. A power supply is essential
for the computer to boot and function properly. A faulty or inadequate power supply can
cause various issues, such as no power, no display, random shutdowns, or beeping
sounds.
In this scenario, the technician is trying to fix a computer that fails to boot even when all the
RAM is removed. RAM stands for Random Access Memory, and it is a type of memory that
stores data and instructions for the processor to access and process. RAM is also essential
for the computer to boot and function properly. A faulty or incompatible RAM can cause
various issues, such as no boot, no display, blue screen, or beeping sounds.
One of the basic troubleshooting techniques for a computer that fails to boot is to remove
all the RAM modules and try to boot with one module at a time in different slots. This can
help to identify if the problem is caused by a bad RAM module or a bad RAM slot. If the
computer still fails to boot even when all the RAM is removed, it means that the problem is
not related to the RAM, but to another component.
The next step that the technician should do is to swap the power supply if it is inoperable.
This means that the technician should test the power supply with a multimeter or a power
supply tester, and replace it with a known good one if it is faulty or insufficient. This can
help to determine if the problem is caused by a bad power supply or a bad motherboard.
The other options are not the next steps that the technician should do, because they are
less likely or less effective. Inspecting the motherboard for swollen capacitors (option A)
may be helpful if the problem is caused by a damaged or defective motherboard, but it
requires opening the computer case and visually examining the motherboard components.
Replacing the CMOS battery (option B) may be necessary if the problem is caused by a
low or dead CMOS battery, but it usually affects only the BIOS settings and not the boot
process. Checking to see if the HDD power connectors are well seated (option D) may be
useful if the problem is caused by a loose or faulty HDD connection, but it usually affects
only the data access and not the boot process.
For more information about troubleshooting power supply and boot issues, you can refer to
the following web search results: [How to Troubleshoot a Computer That Won’t Turn On],
[How to Test a Power Supply Using a Multimeter], [How to Fix a Computer That Shows No
Sign of Power], [How to Troubleshoot Beep Codes].
Question # 119
A technician is relocating a router access point farther away from the modem to optimizesignal coverage for a SOHO client. Which of the following will the technician most likely use to complete the relocation? (Select two).
A. Punchdown tool B. Crimper C. Clamp-style wire stripper D. Network tap E. Wi-Fi analyzer F. Loopback plug
Answer: B,E
Explanation:
A crimper is a tool that is used to attach connectors to network cables, such as RJ-45 or
RJ-11. A technician might need a crimper to create a longer cable for the router access
point or to replace a damaged connector.
A Wi-Fi analyzer is a software or hardware tool that can scan and measure the wireless
signal strength, interference, channel usage, and security of a Wi-Fi network. A technician
might need a Wi-Fi analyzer to find the optimal location and configuration for the router
access point to improve the signal coverage for the SOHO client.
References
•[CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 77
•[CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1001) Certification Study Guide], page 82
•[What is a Crimper?]
•[What is a Wi-Fi Analyzer?]
Question # 120
A laser printer is making humming and grinding noises, and the printouts have ghostimages on the pages. Which of the following should be replaced?
A. Cartridge B. Paper C. Fuser D. Rollers
Answer: C
Explanation: The most likely answer is C. Fuser.
A fuser is a component in a laser printer that uses heat and pressure to fuse the toner
powder onto the paper. If the fuser is damaged or worn out, it can cause humming and
grinding noises, as well as ghost images on the printouts. Ghost images are faint copies of
previous images that appear on the same page. They are caused by the fuser not heating
the toner properly, or by the toner sticking to the fuser roller and transferring to the next
page12.
To fix this problem, you should replace the fuser unit with a new one. You can check your
printer manual for instructions on how to remove and install the fuser unit. You can also
use a diagnostic ruler to measure the distance between the ghost images and determine if
the fuser is the source of the problem2. If the ghost images are far apart (between 4cm and
5cm), then the fuser is likely to be faulty.
References:
1: Solved: “Ghost Images” When Printing - HP Support Community
2: How to Fix Ghosting When Using a Laser Printer and Toner Cartridges – Inksaver
Question # 121
Which of the following is the purpose of an IPv4 gateway?
A. To distribute IP addresses B. To generate ARP traffic C. To assign APIPA addresses D. To route traffic to the next network
Answer: D
Explanation: To route traffic to the next network. An IPv4 gateway is a device that
connects two or more networks and forwards packets based on their destination IP
addresses. It acts as an intermediary between a host and the rest of the internet, allowing
communication across different networks. A gateway does not distribute IP addresses,
generate ARP traffic, or assign APIPA addresses, as these are functions of other network
When a page that was printed on a laser printer is touched. the image on the papersmears. Which of the following is most likely the cause of this issue?
A. Duplexing assembly B. Fuser C. Toner D. Transfer belt
Answer: B
Explanation:
The fuser is the part of a laser printer that uses heat and pressure to fuse the toner to the
paper. If the fuser is defective or not hot enough, the toner may not adhere properly and
smear when touched. The duplexing assembly, toner, and transfer belt are not related to
this issue.
Reference: Official CompTIA learning resources CompTIA A+ Core 1 and Core 2, page 11.
Question # 123
A user's mobile phone is constantly running hot and has a short battery life. A technician replaces the battery in the phone, but the issue persists. Which of the following stepsshould the technician take next?
A. Check the device for updates. B. Check the device for malware. C. Check the device for liquid damage. D. Check the device's charging adapter.
Answer: B
Explanation: The next step that the technician should take after replacing the battery in
the phone is to check the device for malware. Malware is a malicious software that can
infect the phone and cause various problems, such as overheating, battery drain, data
theft, pop-up ads, or performance slowdowns. Malware can enter the phone through
various sources, such as downloading apps from untrusted sources, clicking on suspicious
links or attachments, or connecting to insecure Wi-Fi networks.
To check the device for malware, the technician can use a reputable antivirus or antimalware
app, such as the ones found in the web search results123. The technician can
follow these steps:
Download and install the antivirus or anti-malware app from a trusted source, such
as the Google Play Store or the Apple App Store.
Launch the app and grant it the necessary permissions to scan the device.
Run a full scan of the device and wait for the results.
If the app detects any malware, follow the app’s instructions to remove or
quarantine it.
Restart the device and check if the overheating and battery drain issues are
resolved.
Other steps, such as checking the device for updates, checking the device for liquid
damage, or checking the device’s charging adapter, may not be relevant or effective for
solving the overheating and battery drain issues caused by malware. Checking the device
for updates may improve the security and performance of the device, but it may not remove
the existing malware. Checking the device for liquid damage may reveal physical damage
to the device, but it may not explain the constant overheating and battery drain. Checking
the device’s charging adapter may ensure the proper charging of the device, but it may not
affect the device’s temperature or battery life when it is not plugged in.
References:
Best Android antivirus apps of 2023 | Tom’s Guide1
Best iPhone antivirus apps in 2023 | TechRadar2
The best antivirus software for Android - AV-TEST3
Question # 124
A user indicates that a laptop is not performing well. A technician determines the laptop hasa conventional HDD and that installing a SSD will improve the laptop's performance. Whichof the following lists of steps describes what the technician should do to complete theupgrade with the LEAST amount of downtime?
A. 1. Remove the HDD and install the SSD in the laptop.2. Install the operating system and necessary applications on the SSD.3. Connect the HDD to the laptop using a USB enclosure.4. Copy over all of the user's data. B. 1. Leave the HDD in place.2. Install the SSD in an empty drive bay.3. Leave all data intact on the HDD.4. Confirm the SSD is accessible in the operating system. C. 1. Connect the SSD to the laptop using a USB enclosure.2. Clone the HDD to the SSD using cloning software.3. Remove the HDD.4. Install the SSD. D. 1. Remove the HDD and install the SSD in the laptop.2. Install the operating system and necessary applications on the SSD.3. Install the HDD in a USB enclosure.4. Provide the external HDD for the user to access the old data.
Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to complete the upgrade with the least amount of downtime is
to clone the HDD to the SSD using cloning software, and then replace the HDD with the
SSD. This way, the user does not have to reinstall the operating system and applications,
or copy over their data manually. The other options would either take more time or result in
data loss or inaccessibility. Verified References: [How to Upgrade Your Laptop’s Hard
Drive to an SSD].
Question # 125
A team is having issues with paper jams on a printer that the team shares with other teams. The team that is having issues prints legal-sized documents, and the other teams printletter-sized documents. Which of the following is most likely the issue?
A. Worn rollers B. Page orientation C. Tray settings D. Multipage misfeed
Answer: C
Explanation: The most likely issue is C. Tray settings.
Tray settings are the configuration options that tell the printer what size and type of paper is
loaded in each tray. If the tray settings do not match the actual paper size and type, the
printer may not be able to feed the paper correctly and cause paper jams.
In this scenario, the team that is having issues prints legal-sized documents, which are 8.5
x 14 inches, while the other teams print letter-sized documents, which are 8.5 x 11 inches.
If the printer’s tray settings are set to letter size by default, the printer may not recognize
the legal-sized paper and try to pull it as if it were letter-sized paper. This can result in
paper jams or misaligned printing.
To fix this issue, the team should check and adjust the tray settings on the printer to match
the paper size and type they are using. They can also use a separate tray for legal-sized
paper and another tray for letter-sized paper, and make sure to select the correct tray when
printing.
The other options are less likely to cause the issue, because:
•Worn rollers are the rubber parts that grip and move the paper through the printer. They
can wear out over time and lose their traction, causing paper jams or misfeeds. However,
worn rollers would affect all teams and all paper sizes, not just one team and one paper
size.
•Page orientation is the direction of the paper, either portrait or landscape. It can affect how
the document is printed on the paper, but not how the paper is fed into the printer. Page
orientation can be changed in the print settings or in the document itself, but it would not
cause paper jams unless the paper size is also incorrect.
•Multipage misfeed is when more than one sheet of paper is pulled into the printer at once,
causing a jam. This can happen if the paper is too thin, too thick, or too slippery, or if there
is too much or too little paper in the tray. However, multipage misfeed would also affect all
teams and all paper sizes, not just one team and one paper size.
For more information and tips on how to prevent and fix paper jams, you can visit these
links:
•Fix Paper Jam Errors | HP® Support
•Common Causes of Paper Jams and How to Fix Them - 1ink.com
Question # 126
A technician receives a phone call from a traveling sales representative indicating that themaps application on a phone is not working. The representative runs a speed test on the phone and gets ~10Mbps in both directions. Which of the following settings should thetechnician check first to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Airplane mode B. PRL C. GPS D. LTE
Answer: C Explanation:
GPS (Global Positioning System) is a feature that allows a phone to determine its location
by receiving signals from satellites. A maps application relies on GPS to provide accurate
directions and navigation. If GPS is turned off or not working properly, the maps application
may not function as expected.
The other options are not relevant to the issue. Airplane mode is a setting that disables all
wireless communication on a phone, including cellular, Wi-Fi, Bluetooth, and GPS.
However, since the representative runs a speed test and gets ~10Mbps in both directions,
it means that airplane mode is not enabled. PRL (Preferred Roaming List) is a database
that contains information about the cellular towers and networks that a phone can connect
to. Updating the PRL can improve the phone’s signal strength and coverage, but it does not
affect the maps application. LTE (Long Term Evolution) is a standard for high-speed
wireless communication on mobile devices. It is related to the cellular data speed and
quality, but not to the maps application.
To troubleshoot the issue, the technician should check the GPS settings on the phone and
make sure that it is turned on and has a clear view of the sky. The technician should also
verify that the maps application has permission to access the GPS location. If the problem
persists, the technician may suggest resetting the network settings, updating the phone’s
software, or contacting the maps application’s support team.
References:
CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Objectives1
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook2
How to Fix Google Maps When It’s Not Working on Android - MUO3
Apple Maps Not Working? 5 Fixes to Get You Back on the Road (2023)4
Question # 127
A user frequently edits large files and saves them locally on a laptop_ The user hasrecently begun experiencing performance issues and needs a cost-effective hardwareupgrade.Which of the following is the best way to meet the user's requirements?
A. Upgrade the memory B. Upgrade to a larger GPU. C. Upgrade to an SSD. D. Upgrade to a faster CPU.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Upgrading to an SSD (Solid State Drive) is the best way to meet the user’s requirements
because it will improve the performance and storage capacity of the laptop. SSDs are
faster than HDDs (Hard Disk Drives) because they have no moving parts and can access
data more quickly. SSDs also have lower power consumption, lower heat generation, and
higher reliability than HDDs. Therefore, upgrading to an SSD will make the laptop more
responsive, boot faster, and handle large files better.
According to some web sources, SSDs are the best hard drives for video editing because
they can streamline the workflow and store masses of footage in one easy-to-access
place1. SSDs are also one of the most common PC upgrades that can make a dramatic
difference, especially for aging systems2. Additionally, Adobe recommends using SSDs for
Premiere Pro and After Effects because they can handle large media files and cache data
more efficiently3.
References:
•The best hard drives for video editing in 2023, section “Best SSD overall”.
•The Five Best PC Upgrades to Improve Performance, section “Add a Solid-State Drive”.
•Hardware recommendations for Premiere Pro and After Effects, section “Storage”.
Question # 128
A technician is asked to set up a new laptop for a coworker. Which of the following storagedevices and interfaces will providethe best performance? (Select two).
A. 15,000rpm HDD B. M.2 SSD C. 10,000rpm HDD D. NVMe interface E. SATA interface F. mSATA interface
Answer: B,D
Explanation: M.2 SSD and NVMe interface are the best options for storage devices and interfaces that
provide the best performance. M.2 SSD is a form factor that allows for faster data transfer
and lower power consumption than traditional SATA SSDs. NVMe is a protocol that
enables direct communication between the SSD and the PCIe bus, bypassing the SATA
controller and reducing latency and overhead. Together, they offer the highest speed and
efficiency for storage devices.
References:
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 Student Guide (Exam 220-1101) eBook1, page 3-17,
section “M.2 Interface”.
The Official CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1101) Certification Study Guide2, page 3-21, section
“NVMe”.
Question # 129
An engineer is installing a 500W power supply in a server that requires continuousavailability. Which of the following is the most suitable type ofpower supply for the application?
A. Redundant B. Modular C. Switched-mode D. Semi-modular
Answer: A
Explanation: A redundant power supply is a type of power supply that consists of two or more independent units that can provide power to the same device or system. A redundant
power supply can increase the reliability and availability of the device or system, because if
one unit fails, the other unit can take over and continue to provide power without
interruption. A redundant power supply is often used in servers that require continuous
availability, such as web servers, database servers, or file servers.
Question # 130
A technician is troubleshooting a phone with limited internet connectivity. The technicianhas identified the phone on the Wi-Fi network and confirmed that it responds to pings.However, the phone is still unable to open comptia.org. Which of the following should thetechnician check next?
A. Jailbreak status B. DNS servers C. Airplane mode D. Certificate store
Answer: B
Explanation:
DNS servers are responsible for translating domain names into IP addresses, which are
used to access websites. If the phone has limited internet connectivity, it might be because
the DNS servers are not working properly or are blocked by the network. The technician
should check the DNS settings on the phone and try to use a different DNS server, such as
Google DNS (8.8.8.8 or 8.8.4.4) or Cloudflare DNS (1.1.1.1 or 1.0.0.1).
References
•9 Best Ways to Fix Wi-Fi Showing Limited Connectivity in Android
•7 Easy Ways to Fix Limited Wi-Fi Connectivity on Android
•How to Fix Limited Connectivity Issue in Android Wi-Fi
Question # 131
A user is attempting to connect a streaming media device to a hotel's tree wireless internetHowever, the user is unable to pass through the captive portal. Which of the followingwould MOST likely allow the user to connect the device to the internet?
A. Connecting to the hotspot on the user's device B. Disabling the Wi-Fi security on the device C. Asking the hotel to disable the captive portal on the Wi-Fi D. Adjusting the date and time stamps on the device to reflect another country
Answer: A
Explanation: A captive portal is a web page that requires users to agree to terms and
conditions, enter credentials, or provide payment information before accessing a wireless
network. Some devices, such as streaming media devices, may not have a web browser or
a user interface to interact with the captive portal. One possible solution is to connect to the
hotspot on the user’s device, such as a smartphone or a tablet, and use it as a bridge to
access the internet through the wireless network. The user’s device can authenticate with
the captive portal and share its internet connection with other devices via Wi-Fi, Bluetooth,
A technician is troubleshooting a network issue and needs to check the status of a localnetwork device in the least disruptive manner possible_ Which of the following tools shouldthe technician use to accomplish this task?
A. Network tap B. Cable tester C. Multimeter D. Tone generator
Answer: A
Explanation: A network tap is a device that can be used to monitor and analyze the traffic
and data that pass through a network. A network tap can be inserted between two network
devices, such as a switch and a router, and capture the packets that flow in both directions.
A network tap can then send a copy of the packets to another device, such as a laptop or a
server, for inspection and troubleshooting. A network tap can help diagnose and resolve network issues, such as performance, security, or configuration problems.
A network tap is the least disruptive tool for checking the status of a local network device,
because it does not interfere with the normal operation of the network. A network tap does
not alter or block the packets that it captures, and it does not introduce any latency or noise
to the network. A network tap can also operate in stealth mode, which means that it is
invisible to the network devices and cannot be detected by hackers or attackers.
Question # 133
A customer wants to archive a large number of photos and does not plan to retrieve themoften. The customer wants a storage option that is the least expensive per gigabyte. Whichof the following should the technician suggest?
A. NVMe SSD B. SCSI RAID C. 15,000rpm SAS D. 5,400rpm HOD
Answer: D
Explanation:
The correct answer is D. 5,400rpm HDD.
A 5,400rpm HDD (Hard Disk Drive) is a type of storage device that uses spinning magnetic
disks to store data. A 5,400rpm HDD is the least expensive per gigabyte among the options
given, as it has a lower rotational speed and performance than other types of HDDs or
SSDs (Solid State Drives). A 5,400rpm HDD is suitable for archiving a large number of
photos that are not accessed frequently, as it can offer high capacity and reliability at a low
cost.
the average cost per gigabyte of a 5,400rpm HDD is around $0.02 to $0.0312, while the
average cost per gigabyte of the other options are:
NVMe SSD: $0.10 to $0.1534
SCSI RAID: $0.20 to $0.305
15,000rpm SAS: $0.30 to $0.40
Therefore, a 5,400rpm HDD is the cheapest option among the four.
After an IT department implements SSL redirection, users report being unable to access arandom number generator opened within a web browser.Which of the following should a technician do first to troubleshoot this issue?
A. Ensure that the computer supports secure socket communication. B. Report the affected user accounts to the IT department. C. Reset the web browser cache. D. Check to see whether the website is HTTPS enabled.
Answer: D
Explanation: The first step to troubleshoot this issue is to check if the website that hosts
the random number generator is HTTPS enabled. This means that the website supports
secure communication using SSL certificates and encryption. If the website is not HTTPS
enabled, it may not be compatible with the SSL redirection implemented by the IT
department. SSL redirection is a technique that automatically redirects HTTP requests to
HTTPS, ensuring that the data exchanged between the web browser and the website is
protected. However, some websites may not have SSL certificates or may have expired or
invalid ones, which can cause errors or warnings when trying to access them via HTTPS.
Therefore, the technician should check the website’s URL and see if it starts with https:// or
http://. If it is the latter, the technician should try to manually change it to https:// and see if
the website loads correctly. If it does not, the technician should contact the website owner
or administrator and ask them to enable HTTPS or update their SSL certificates.
References:
Some additional references for the answer are:
How To Fix HTTP and HTTPS Redirect Issue | Sitechecker
Nginx SSL Certificate and HTTPS Redirect Errors | DigitalOcean
ERR_TOO_MANY_REDIRECTS · Cloudflare SSL/TLS docs
How to Fix SSL Redirect Loop | Hostinger Help Center
Question # 135
Which of the following devices is capable of dynamically distributing an IP address?
A. Hub B. Switch C. Injector D. Router
Answer: D
Explanation: A router is a device that connects multiple networks and forwards packets
between them based on their destination IP addresses. A router can also perform DHCP
(Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) function, which means it can dynamically distribute
IP addresses to devices on its network. A router can also provide other features, such as
A bank wants to leverage cloud computing but would like a cloud solution in whichinfrastructure is shared with businesses in the same industry. Which of the following cloudmodels would BEST address the bank's need?
A. Private B. Hybrid C. Public D. Community
Answer: D
Explanation: A community cloud model is a cloud solution in which infrastructure is shared among organizations that have common interests, goals, or concerns, such as security,
compliance, or industry standards. This model would best address the bank’s need to
leverage cloud computing while maintaining a high level of security and privacy for its data
and transactions. The other cloud models are not suitable for this scenario, as they either
do not offer enough control over the infrastructure (public cloud), or do not allow for sharing
of resources among similar organizations (private cloud and hybrid cloud). Verified
References: [What Is Community Cloud?]
Question # 137
A technician recently installed a new printer that is being shared over the network via a 64-bit Windows Print Server Two users, who have computers with a legacy OS, are unable toprint to this new printer. Which of the following should the technician do to resolve thisissue?
A. Enable 32-bit drivers on the Print Server. B. Enable Print Spooler and restart the computer. C. Run Windows Update on the users' computers_ D. Update the computers to a 64-bit driver.
Answer: A
Explanation:
The correct answer is A. Enable 32-bit drivers on the Print Server.
A print server is a computer or device that manages the printing requests from multiple
clients over a network. A print server can share one or more printers with different types of
clients, such as Windows, Mac, or Linux. However, to ensure compatibility and
functionality, the print server must have the appropriate drivers for each printer and each client1.
A driver is a software component that enables the communication and interaction between
a device and an operating system. A driver must match the specifications and features of
the device, as well as the architecture and version of the operating system. A driver that is
incompatible with either the device or the operating system may cause errors,
malfunctions, or performance issues2.
In this scenario, the technician installed a new printer that is being shared over the network
via a 64-bit Windows Print Server. This means that the print server has a 64-bit operating
system and a 64-bit driver for the printer. However, two users who have computers with a
legacy OS (an older or outdated operating system) are unable to print to this new printer.
This may be because their computers have a 32-bit operating system and require a 32-bit
driver for the printer.
To resolve this issue, the technician should enable 32-bit drivers on the Print Server. This
means that the technician should install and configure a 32-bit driver for the printer on the
print server, in addition to the existing 64-bit driver. This way, the print server can support
both 64-bit and 32-bit clients, and allow them to print to the same printer34.
To enable 32-bit drivers on a Windows Print Server, the technician can follow these steps4:
On the print server, open Control Panel and select Devices and Printers.
Right-click on the printer that needs a 32-bit driver and select Printer Properties.
Click on the Sharing tab and check the box that says Share this printer.
Click on Additional Drivers and check the box that says x86 (for 32-bit).
Click OK and follow the instructions to install and configure the 32-bit driver.
For more information about print servers, drivers, and compatibility issues, you can refer to
the following web search results: What is a Print Server?, What is a Device Driver?, How to
Install Additional Drivers for Shared Printers, How to Enable 32-Bit Drivers on Windows
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