Name: CISA
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Answer: A
Explanation: Issuing authentication tokens is the most reliable method of preventing unauthorized logon, as it provides a strong form of authentication that requires users to present something they have (the token) and something they know (the personal identification number or PIN) to access the system. Authentication tokens are physical devices that generate a one-time password or code that changes periodically and is synchronized with the authentication server. This makes it difficult for attackers to steal or guess the credentials of legitimate users. Reinforcing current security policies, limiting after-hours usage and installing an automatic password generator are not as reliable as issuing authentication tokens, as they do not provide a strong form of authentication and may still be vulnerable to unauthorized logon attempts. References:

: [Authentication Token Definition]
: Authentication | ISACA

Answer: C
Explanation: The best control to minimize the risk of unauthorized access to lost company-owned mobile devices is device encryption. Device encryption is a process that transforms data on a device into an unreadable format using a cryptographic key. Device encryption protects the data stored on the device from being accessed by unauthorized parties, even if they bypass the password or PIN protection. Device encryption can also prevent data leakage if the device is disposed of or recycled without proper data sanitization. Password or PIN protection is a basic control that prevents unauthorized access to the device by requiring a secret code or pattern to unlock it. However, password or PIN protection can be easily compromised by brute force attacks, shoulder surfing, or social engineering. Device trackingsoftware is a tool that allows the device owner or administrator to locate, lock, or wipe the device remotely in case of loss or theft. However, device tracking software depends on the device’s network connectivity and GPS functionality, which may not be available or reliable in some situations. Periodic backup is a process that copies the data from the device to another storage location for recovery purposes. Periodic backup can help restore the data in case of loss or damage of the device, but it does not prevent unauthorized access to the data on the device itself. References: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.4: Mobile Devices

Answer: D
Explanation: A fire alarm system is a device that detects and alerts people of the presence of fire or smoke in a building. A fire alarm control panel is the central unit that monitors and controls the fire alarm system. The most effective location for the fire alarm control panel would be inside the booth used by the building security personnel. This is because:
The security personnel can quickly and easily access the fire alarm control panel in case of an emergency, and take appropriate actions such as notifying the fire department, evacuating the building, or resetting the system.
The fire alarm control panel can be protected from unauthorized access, tampering, or damage by the security personnel, who can also monitor its status and performance regularly. The fire alarm control panel can be isolated from the computer room, which may be exposed to higher risks of fire or smoke due to the presence of electrical equipment, such as uninterruptible power supply (UPS) modules or server computers.
The fire alarm control panel can be connected to the computer room through a dedicated communication line, which can ensure reliable and timely transmission of signals and information between the two locations.
References:

[1]: Fire Alarm Control Panel - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics
[2]: Fire Alarm Control Panel - What is it and how does it work? | Fire Protection Online
[3]: Fire Alarm Control Panel Installation Guide - XLS3000 - Honeywell

Answer: D
Explanation: The most important factor to consider when developing a service level agreement (SLA) is the description of the services from the viewpoint of the client organization, because the SLA shouldreflect the needs and expectations of the client and specify the measurable outcomes and performance indicators that the provider must deliver34. The description of the services from the viewpoint of the provider, the detailed identification of work to be completed, and the provisions for regulatory requirements that impact the end users’ businesses are also important elements of an SLA, but not as crucial as the
client’sperspective. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.1 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 3

Answer: B
Explanation: Substantive testing is the most important type of testing during software license audits, as it provides evidence of the accuracy and completeness of the software inventory and licensing records. Substantive testing involves examiningtransactions, balances, and other data to verify their validity, existence, accuracy, and valuation. Compliance testing, on the other hand, is more focused on assessing the adequacy and effectiveness of internal controls over software licensing, such as policies, procedures,and monitoring mechanisms. Compliance testing alone cannot provide sufficient assurance that the software license audit objectives are met, as itdoes notverify the actual software usage and compliance status. Judgmental sampling and stop-or-go sampling are methods of selecting samples for testing, not types of testing themselves. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 1206 Testing, “The IS audit and assurance professional should perform sufficient testing to obtain sufficient appropriate evidence to support conclusions reached.” 1 The section also defines substantive testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence to detect material misstatements in transactions orbalances” and compliance testing as “testing performed to obtain audit evidence on theoperating effectiveness of controls.” 1 According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Guideline G15 Software License Management, “The objective of a software license auditis to provide management with an independent assessment relating to compliance with software license agreements.” 2 The guideline also states that “substantive tests should be performed on a sample basis to verify that all software installed on devices within scope has been appropriately licensed.” 2

Answer: B
Explanation: Recounting the transaction records to ensure no records are missing provides assurance that the best transactions were recovered successfully from a snapshot copy. This is because recounting the transaction records can verify that the number of records in the restored database matches the number of records in the snapshot copy, which represents the state of the database before the deletion occurred. Recounting the transaction records can also detect any data corruption or inconsistency that may have occurred during the restore process1.
Reviewing transaction recovery logs to ensure no errors were recorded is not the best answer, because transaction recovery logs may not capture all the details or issues that may affect the data quality or integrity. Transaction recovery logs are mainly used to monitor and troubleshoot the restore process, but they may not reflect the actual content or accuracy of the restored data2.
Rerunning the process on a backup machine to verify the results are the same is not the best answer, because rerunning the process may introduce additional errors or inconsistencies that may affect the data quality or integrity. Rerunning theprocess may also consume more time and resources than necessary, and it may not guarantee that the results are identical to the original data3.
Comparing transaction values against external statements to verify accuracy is not the best answer, because external statements may not be available or reliable for all transactions. External statements are documents or reports that provide information about transactions from a third-party source, such as a bank, a vendor, or a customer. However, external statements may not cover all transactions, or they may have differentformats, standards, or timeliness than the internal data

Answer: D
Explanation: Evidence collection is the process of identifying, acquiring, preserving, and documenting digital evidence from various sources, such as computers, networks, mobile devices, or cloud services, that can be used to support the investigation and prosecution of cybercrimes. Evidence collection is an IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating the response process for cybercrimes, because it determines the quality and validity of the evidence that can be used to prove or disprove the facts of the case, identify the perpetrators, and recover the losses. Evidence collection should follow the standards and best practices for digital forensics, such as ISO/IEC 270371, which provide guidelines for ensuring the integrity, authenticity, reliability, and admissibility of the evidence2. The other possible options are:
A. Communication with law enforcement: This is the process of reporting, cooperating, and coordinating with law enforcement agencies that have the jurisdiction and authority to investigate and prosecute cybercrimes. Communication with law enforcement is an important aspect of the response process for cybercrimes, but it is not an IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating it. Communication with law enforcement depends on the legal and regulatory requirements, the nature and severity of the incident, and the organizational policies and procedures. Communication with law enforcement should be done after evidence collection, to avoid compromising or contaminating the evidence3. B. Notification to regulators: This is the process of informing and updating the relevant regulatory bodies or authorities that oversee or supervise the organization’s activities or industry sector about the cybercrime incident. Notification to regulators is an important aspect of the response process for cybercrimes, but it is not an IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating it. Notification to regulators depends on the legal and regulatory requirements, the nature and impact of the incident, and the organizational policies and procedures. Notification to regulators should be doneafter evidence collection, to avoid disclosing sensitiveor confidential information4.
C. Root cause analysis: This is the process of identifying and analyzing the underlying factors or causes that led to or contributed to the cybercrime incident. Root cause analysis is an important aspect of the response process for cybercrimes, but it is not an IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating it. Root cause analysis helps to prevent or mitigate future incidents, improve security controls and processes, and learn from mistakes. Root cause analysis should be done after evidence collection, to avoid interfering with or affecting theinvestigation5.

Answer: B
Explanation: The main purpose of an IDS is to detect and report malicious or suspicious activity on a network or a host. If an IDS fails to identify actual attacks, it means that the IDS is not functioning properly or effectively, and it exposes the organization to serious security risks and potential damage. This is the most concerning scenario for an IS auditor, as it indicates a major deficiency in the IDS performance and configuration.
ReferencesWhat is an intrusion detection system (IDS)?What is Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)?How does it Work?When reviewing an intrusion detection system (IDS), an IS auditor …Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS)—An Overview with a Generalized …An overview of issues in testing intrusion detection systems - NISTA Review of Intrusion Detection Systems and Their …

Answer: A
Explanation: Regular scanning of hard drives is the most effective way to detect installation of unauthorized software packages by employees because it can identify any software that is not approved by the organization and may pose a security risk or violate the software policy. Communicating the policy to employees is important, but it may not prevent or detect unauthorized software installation. Logging of activity on the network can monitor network traffic, but it may not capture all software installation events. Maintaining current antivirus software can protect the system from malicious software, but it may not detect all unauthorized software packages. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, p. 2381
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: A
Explanation: An IS auditor’s primary concern would be whether the recovery site devices can handle the storage requirements. The storage requirements are determined by the amount and type of data that needs to be backed up and restored in case of a disaster at the primary data center. The recovery site devices should have enough capacity, performance, reliability, and compatibility to meet these requirements.
If the recovery site devices cannot handle the storage requirements, then there is a risk that some data may not be backed up properly or may not be available for recovery when needed. This couldresult in data loss, corruption, or inconsistency, which could affect the business continuity and integrity of the organization.
Therefore, an IS auditor should verify that:
The recovery site devices have sufficient storage space to accommodate all the data that needs to be backed up from the primary data center.
The recovery site devices have adequate bandwidth and speed to transfer and access data efficiently and effectively.
The recovery site devices have appropriate security features and controls to protect data from unauthorized access or modification.
The recovery site devices are compatible with the primary data center devices in terms of hardware, software, format, and protocol.
References:

10: What Is a Disaster Recovery Site? Hot, Cold & Warm Site
11: Disaster recovery site - What is the ideal distance to mitigate risks? - Advisera
12: Offsite Data Backup Storage vs Disaster Recovery (DR) - LINBIT

Answer: A
Explanation: An IT risk assessment is the process of identifying and assessing the threats facing an organization’s information systems, networks, and data. An IT risk assessment helps an organization to understand its current risk profile, prioritize its risks, and implement appropriate controls to mitigate them. An IT risk assessment also helps an organization to comply with relevant laws and standards, such as ISO 27001 or CMMC.
One of the key steps in an IT risk assessment is the identification of vulnerabilities. Vulnerabilities are the weaknesses or gaps in an organization’s information security that could be exploited by internal or external threats. Vulnerabilities can exist in various aspects of an organization’s information security, such as:
Hardware: The physical devices and components that store or process information
Software: The applications and programs that run on hardware devices
Network: The communication channels and protocols that connect hardware devices
Data: The information that is stored or transmitted by hardware devices or software applications
People: The users or personnel who access or manage information systems or data
Processes: The procedures or workflows that govern how information systems or data are used or maintained
By identifying vulnerabilities in each of these aspects, an organization can assess its exposure to potential threats, such as hackers, malware, natural disasters, human errors, or sabotage. By identifying vulnerabilities, an organization can also determine its risk level for each threat scenario, based on the likelihood and impact of a successful attack. By identifying vulnerabilities, an organization can also identify the existing or required controls to prevent or reduce the impact of an attack.
Therefore, an IT risk assessment should include the identification of vulnerabilities as a crucial component.
References:

4: What Is an IT Risk Assessment? (Plus Benefits and Components) | Indeed.com
5: How to Perform a Successful IT Risk Assessment - Hyperproof
6: IT Risk Resources | ISACA

Answer: C
Explanation: The finding that should be of greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing data conversion and migration during the implementation of a new application system is that unauthorized data modificationsoccurred during conversion. Data conversion and migration is a process that involves transferring data from one system to another, ensuring its accuracy, completeness, integrity, and usability. Unauthorized data modifications during conversion can result in data loss, corruption, inconsistency, or duplication, which can affect the functionality, performance, reliability, and security of the new system. Unauthorized data modifications can also have serious business implications, such as affecting decision making, reporting, compliance, customer service, and revenue. The IS auditor should verify that adequate controls are in place to prevent, detect, and correct unauthorized data modifications during conversion, such as access control, data validation, reconciliation, audit trail, and backup and recovery. The other findings (A, B and D) are less concerning, as they can be mitigated by documenting the change management process, restoring the backups of the old system and data from offline storage, or automating the data conversion process. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.4: System Implementation

Answer: B
Explanation: Change control is the process of managing and documenting changes to an information system or its components. Change control aims to ensure that changes are authorized, tested, approved, implemented, and reviewed in a controlled and consistent manner. Change control is an essential part of ensuring the security, reliability, and quality of an information system.
One of the key elements of change control is testing and approval from quality assurance (QA). QA is the function that verifies that the changes meet the requirements and specifications, comply with the standards and policies, and do not introduce any errors or vulnerabilities. QA testing and approval provide assurance that the changes are fit for purpose, function as expected, and do not compromise the security or performance of the system. \
An organization that has recently moved to an agile model for deploying custom code to its in-house accounting software system should still follow change control procedures, including QA testing and approval. Agile development methods emphasize flexibility, speed, and collaboration, but they do not eliminate the need for quality and security checks. In fact, agile methods can facilitate change control by enabling frequent and iterative testing and feedback throughout the development cycle.
However, if change control does not include testing and approval from QA, this poses a significant security concern for the organization. Without QA testing and approval, the changes may not be properly validated, verified, or evaluated before being deployed to production. This could result in introducing bugs, defects, or vulnerabilities that could affect the functionality, availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the accounting software system. For example, a change could cause data corruption, performance degradation, unauthorized access, or data leakage. These risks could have serious consequences for the organization’s financial operations, compliance obligations, reputation, or legal liabilities. Therefore, change control that does not include testing and approval from QA is the most significant security concern to address when reviewing the procedures in place for production code deployment in an agile model.
References:

Change Control - ISACA
Quality Assurance - ISACA
Agile Development - ISACA
10 Agile Software Development Security Concerns You Need to Know

Answer: C
Explanation: Internet Protocol (IP) address restrictions are used in a firewall to protect the entity’s internal resources by allowing or denying access to specific IP addresses or ranges of IP addresses based on predefined rules. Remote access servers, Secure Sockets Layers (SSLs), and failover services are not directly related to firewall protection, but rather to other aspects of network security, such as authentication, encryption, and
availability. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.2: Network Security Devices and Technologies

Answer: C
Explanation: The primary role of an internal audit function in the management of identified business risks is to validate the enterprise risk management (ERM) process and provide assurance on its effectiveness. The internal audit function should evaluate whether the ERM process is aligned with the organization’s objectives, strategies, policies and culture, and whether it covers all relevant risks and controls. The internal audit function should also assess whether the ERM process is operating as designed and producing reliable and timely information for decision making. The other options are not the primary role of an internal audit function, but rather the responsibilities of senior management, board of directors or risk owners. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27thEdition, chapter 1, section 1.41
ISACA, IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 12072

Answer: C
Explanation: The first step in managing the impact of a recently discovered zero-day attack is to identify vulnerable assets. A zero-day attack is a cyberattack that exploits a previously unknown or unpatched vulnerability in a software or system, before the vendor or developer has had time to fix it. Identifying vulnerable assets is crucial for managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because it helps to determine the scope and severity of the attack, prioritize the protection and mitigation measures, and isolate or quarantine the affected assets from further damage or compromise. The other options are not the first steps in managing the impact of a zero-day attack, because they either require more informationabout the vulnerable assets, or they are part of the subsequentsteps of assessing, responding, or recovering from the attack. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4

Answer: C
Explanation: The best audit evidence that a firewall is configured in compliance with the organization’s security policy is to review the rule base. The rule base is a set of rules that defines the criteria for allowing or denying network traffic through the firewall. By reviewing the rule base, the auditor can verify if the firewall configuration matches the security policy requirements and objectives. Analyzing how the configuration changes are performed, analyzing log files, and performing penetration testingare useful audit techniques, but they do not provide direct evidence of the firewall configuration compliance. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, page 383.

Answer: B
Explanation: The first thing that an IS auditor should recommend when an organization is made aware of a new regulation that is likely to impact IT security requirements is to determine which systems and IT-related processes may be impacted. This is because the impact assessment is a crucial step to understand the scope and magnitude of the changes that the new regulation may entail, as well as the potential risks and gaps that need to be addressed. The impact assessment can help the organization to prioritize and plan the necessary actions and resourcesto comply with the new regulation in a timely and effective manner12.
Updating security policies based on the new regulation is not the first thing to do, because it requires a clear understanding of the impact and implications of the new regulation, which can only be obtained after conducting an impact assessment. Updating security policies without an impact assessment may result in incomplete, inconsistent, or ineffective policies that may not meet the regulatory requirements or the organizational needs12.
Evaluating how security awareness and training content may be impacted is not the first thing to do, because it is a secondary or supporting activity that depends on the results of the impact assessment and the policy updates. Evaluating security awareness and training content without an impact assessment or policy updates may result in inaccurate, outdated, or irrelevant content that may not reflect the regulatory requirements or the organizational expectations34.
Reviewing the design and effectiveness of existing IT controls is not the first thing to do, because it is a monitoring or assurance activity that follows the implementation of the changes based on the impact assessment and the policy updates. Reviewing IT controls without an impact assessment or policy updates may result in misleading, incomplete, or invalidfindings that may not capture the regulatory requirements or the organizational performance

Answer: D
Explanation: The first step in auditing a data communication system is to determine the business use and types of messages to be transmitted. This is because the auditor needs to understand the purpose, scope, and objectives of the data communication system, as well as the nature, volume, and sensitivity of the data being transmitted. This will help the auditor to identify the risks, controls, and audit criteria for the data communication system. Traffic volumes and response-time criteria, physical security for network equipment, and the level of redundancy in the various communication paths are important aspects of a data communication system, but they are not the first step in auditing it. They depend on the business use and types of messages to be transmitted, and they may vary according to different scenarios and requirements. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Auditing Standards]

Answer: C
Explanation: The answer C is correct because preventive maintenance is outsourced to multiple vendors without requiring nondisclosure agreements (NDAs) would be of greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing on-site preventive maintenance for an organization’s business-critical server hardware. This is because outsourcing preventive maintenance to multiple vendors without NDAs exposes the organization to the risk of unauthorized access, disclosure, or modification of sensitive data and information stored on the servers. NDAs are legal contracts that bind the vendors to protect the confidentiality and security of the data and information they access or handle during the preventive maintenance. Without NDAs, the vendors may not have any obligation or incentive to safeguard the data and information, and they may misuse, leak, or compromise them for malicious or commercial purposes. This could result in financial losses, reputational damage, legal liabilities, or regulatory penalties for the organization.
The other options are not as concerning as option C. Preventive maintenance costs exceed the business allocated budget (option A) is a financial issue that may affect the profitability or efficiency of the organization, but it does not directly impact the security or availability of the server hardware. Preventive maintenance has not been approved by the information system (option B) is a procedural issue that may indicate a lack of coordination or communication between the IT department and the business units, but it does not necessarily affect the quality or effectiveness of the preventive maintenance. The preventive maintenance schedule is based on mean time between failures (MTBF) parameters (option D) is a technical issue that may influence the frequency or timing of the preventive maintenance, but it does not imply any risk or deficiency in the preventive maintenance itself.
References:

What is a Maintenance Audit?
How to audit your preventative maintenance schedule
5 Step Maintenance Management Program Audit
How do you get effective Preventive Maintenance really?
What is a Planned Preventative MaintenanceAudit?

Answer: C
Explanation: Audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function by providing direction and information regarding the performance of audits. Audit frameworks are sets of standards, guidelines, and best practices that help IS auditors plan, conduct, and report on their audit engagements. Audit frameworks can help IS auditors ensure the quality, consistency, and professionalism of their audit work, as well as comply with the expectations and requirements of the stakeholders and regulators. Audit frameworks can also help IS auditors address the specific challenges and risks of auditing information systems and technology.
Defining the authority and responsibility of the IS audit function is not a way that audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function, but rather a way that the IS audit charter can assist the IS audit function. The IS audit charter is a document that defines the purpose, scope, objectives, and authority of the IS audit function within the organization. The IS audit charter can help IS auditors establish their role and position in relation to other functions and departments, as well as clarify their rights and obligations.
Providing details on how to execute the audit program is not a way that audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function, but rather a way that the audit methodology can assist the IS audit function. The audit methodology is a set of procedures and techniques that guide IS auditors in performing their audit tasks and activities. The audit methodology can help IS auditors apply a systematic and structured approach to their audit work, as well as use appropriate tools and methods to collect and analyze evidence.
Outlining the specific steps needed to complete audits is not a way that audit frameworks can assist the IS audit function, but rather a way that the audit plan can assist the IS audit function. The audit plan is a document that describes the scope, objectives, timeline, resources, and deliverables of a specific audit engagement. The audit plan can help IS auditors organize and manage their audit work, as well as communicate their expectations and responsibilities to the auditees.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 51 1
Understanding Project Audit Frameworks - Wolters Kluwer 2
How to Implement a Robust Audit Framework - Insights - Metricstream 3
What Is The Internal Audit Function? An Accurate Definition Of The

Answer: D
Explanation: A router is a type of device that sits on the perimeter of a corporate or home network, where it obtains a public IP address and then generates private IP addresses internally. A router connects two or more networks and forwards packets between them based on routing rules. A router can also provide network address translation (NAT) functionality, which allows multiple devices to share a single public IP address and access the internet. A switch is a type of device that connects multiple devices within a network and forwards packets based on MAC addresses. An intrusion prevention system (IPS) is a type of device that monitors network traffic and blocks or modifies malicious packets based on predefined rules. A gateway is a type of device that acts as an interface between different networks or protocols, such as a modem or a firewall. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Glossary of Terms]

Answer: A
Explanation: The most important thing for an IS auditor to verify when reviewing the use of an outsourcer for disposal of storage media is that the vendor’s process appropriately sanitizes the media before disposal. As explained in the previous question, storage media may contain sensitive or confidential information that needs to be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, or misuse. The IS auditor should verify that the vendor has a process that appropriately sanitizes the media before disposal, such as wiping, degaussing, shredding, or incinerating, and that the process is effective and compliant with the organization’s policies and standards. The other options are not as important as verifying the vendor’s process, because they either do not ensure the security and privacy of the information on the media, or they aresecondary to the vendor’s
process. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.7

Answer: D
Explanation: The overall effectiveness of an organization’s disaster recovery planning process depends on how well the plan reflects the current and future needs and risks of the organization, and how well the plan is tested, communicated, and maintained. Among the four options given, the most important one for the IS auditor to verify is that management reviews and updates the plan annually or as changes occur.
A disaster recovery plan is not a static document that can be created once and forgotten. It is a dynamic and evolving process that requires regular review and update to ensure that it remains relevant, accurate, and effective. A disaster recovery plan should be reviewed and updated at least annually, or whenever there are significant changes in the organization’s structure, operations, environment, or regulations. These changes could affect the business impact analysis, risk assessment, recovery objectives, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, or resources of the disaster recovery plan. If the plan is not updated to reflect these changes, it could become obsolete, incomplete, or inconsistent, and fail to meet the organization’s recovery needs or expectations.
The other three options are not as important as reviewing and updating the plan, although they may also contribute to the effectiveness of the disaster recovery planning process. Contracting with a third party for warm site services is a possible recovery strategy that involves using a partially equipped facility that can be quickly activated in case of a disaster. However, this strategy may not be suitable or sufficient for every organization or scenario, and it does not guarantee the success of the disaster recovery plan. Scheduling an annual tabletop exercise is a good practice that involves simulating a disaster scenario and testing the plan in a hypothetical setting. However, this exercisemay not be enough to evaluate the feasibility or readiness of the plan, and it should be complemented by other types of tests, such as walkthroughs, drills, or full-scale exercises. Documenting and distributing a copy of the plan to all personnel is an essential step that ensures that everyone involved in or affected by the plan is aware of their roles and responsibilities, and has access to the relevant information and instructions. However, this step alone does not ensure that the plan is understood or followed by all personnel, and it should be accompanied by proper training, education, and awareness programs.
Therefore, reviewing and updating the plan annually or as changes occur is the best answer.

Answer: B
Explanation: The best way to determine whether unauthorized changes have been made to production programs is to use source code comparison software to compare the current version of the programs with the previous version or the approved version. This will identify any changes that have been made without proper authorization or documentation. Tracing PCRs to logs or vice versa will only verify that the authorized changes have been recorded, but not detect any unauthorized changes. References: Standards, Guidelines, Tools and Techniques - ISACA, section “IS Audit and Assurance Tools and Techniques”

Answer: D
Explanation: The best course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit is to evaluate the residual risk due to open issues. Residual risk is the risk that remains after the implementation of controls or mitigating actions. Evaluating the residual risk due to open issues can help the IS auditor assess the impact and likelihood of the potential threats and vulnerabilities that have not been addressed by the auditee, as well as the adequacy and effectiveness of the existing controls or mitigating actions. Evaluating the residual risk due to open issues can also help the IS auditor prioritize and communicate the open issues to the auditee and other stakeholders, such as senior management or audit committee, and recommend appropriate actions or escalation procedures.
Ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results is a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but it is not the best one. Ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results can help the IS auditor document and report the status and progress of the audit recommendations, as well as provide a basis for future follow-up audits. However, ensuring the open issues are retained in the audit results does not provide an analysis or evaluation of the residual risk due to open issues, which is more important for informing decision-making and action-taking.
Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved is not a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but rather a consequence or outcome of it. Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved may indicate that the auditee has failed to comply with the agreed-upon actions or deadlines, or that the IS auditor has encountered significant obstacles or resistance from the auditee. Terminating the follow-up because open issues are not resolved may also trigger further actions or sanctions from the IS auditor or other authorities, such as issuing a qualified or adverse opinion, withholding certification, or imposing penalties.
Recommending compensating controls for open issues is not a course of action for an IS auditor when an auditee is unable to close all audit recommendations by the time of the follow-up audit, but rather a possible outcome or result of it. Compensating controls are alternative or additional controls that are implemented to reduce or eliminate the risk associated with a weakness or deficiency in another control. Recommending compensating controls for open issues may be appropriate when the auditee is unable to implement the original audit recommendations due to technical, operational,financial, or other constraints, and when the compensating controls can provide a similar or equivalent level of assurance. However, recommending compensating controls for open issues requires a prior evaluation of the residual risk due to open issues, which is more important for determining whether compensating controls are necessary and feasible.
References:

Follow-up Audits - Canadian Audit and Accountability Foundation 1
Conducting The Audit Follow-Up: When To Verify - TheAuditor 2
Internal Audit Follow Ups: Are They Really Worth The Effort

Answer: A
Explanation: In a bare metal or native virtualization, the hypervisor runs without a host operating system. A hypervisor, also known as a virtual machine monitor or VMM, is a type of virtualization software that supports the creation and management of virtual machines (VMs) by separating a computer’s software from its hardware. A bare metal hypervisor, also called a Type I or Native hypervisor, is virtualization software that runs onhost machine hardware directly, without requiring an underlying operating system12. This means that the bare metal hypervisor is the host or the operating system (OS) of the hardware1
A guest operating system is an operating system that runs inside a virtual machine, on top of the hypervisor. A bare metal hypervisor can run multiple guest operating systems simultaneously, each with its own applications and resources. A guest operating system is not required for a bare metal hypervisor to run, but it is necessary for running applications on the virtual machine13.
Applications are software programs that perform specific tasks or functions for users. Applications can run on either the host operating system or the guest operating system, depending on the type of virtualization. In a bare metal virtualization, applications can run on the guest operating system, but not on the host operating system, since there is no host operating system. However, applications are not essential for a bare metal hypervisor to run, as they are only used by the users of the virtual machines

Answer: C
Explanation: The internal audit manager should have a reporting line to the audit committee, which is an independent body that oversees the internal audit function and ensures its objectivity and accountability. Reporting functionally to a senior management official may compromise the independence and clarity of the internal audit reporting process, as senior management may have a vested interest in the audit results or influence the audit scope and
priorities. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 1002 Independence, “The chief audit executive (CAE)should report functionally to the board or its equivalent (e.g., audit committee) and administratively to executive management.” 1

Answer: C
Explanation: This is because privacy regulations are laws or rules that protect the personal information of individuals from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, or transfer by third parties. Payroll audit documentation may contain sensitive and confidential data, such as employee names, salaries, benefits, taxes, deductions, and bank accounts. If the audit management application is hosted by a third party in a different country, the organization may need to comply with the privacy regulations of both its own country and the host country, as well as any international or regional agreements or frameworks that apply. Privacy regulations may impose various requirements and obligations on the organization, such as obtaining consent from the data subjects, implementing appropriate security measures, notifying data breaches, and ensuring data quality and accuracy. Privacy regulations may also grant various rights to the data subjects, such as accessing, correcting, deleting, or transferring their data. Failing to comply with privacy regulations may expose the organization to significant risks and consequences, such as legal actions, fines, sanctions, reputational damage, or loss of trust.
Some examples of privacy regulations affecting the organization are:
The General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), which is a comprehensive and strict privacy regulation that applies to anyorganization that processes personal data of individuals in the European Union (EU) or offers goods or services to them, regardless ofwhere the organization or the data is located1.
The California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA), which is a broad and influential privacy regulation that applies to any organization that collectspersonal information of California residentsand meets certain thresholds of revenue, data volume, or data sharing2.
The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), which is a sector-specific privacy regulation that applies to any organization that handles protected health information(PHI) of individuals in the United States, such as health care providers, health plans, or health care clearinghouses3.
Therefore, before using an audit management application hosted by a third party in a different country, the internal audit team should conduct a thorough assessment of the privacy regulations affecting the organization and ensure that they have adequate policies, procedures, and controls in place to comply with them.

Answer: C
Explanation: A maturity model for a technology organization is a tool that measures the progress and capability of the IT function in relation to its goals, processes, and practices. A maturity model can help identify gaps and areas for improvement, as well as benchmark the IT function against industry standards or best practices. One of the key aspects of a maturity model is the definition and clarity of roles and responsibilities for the IT function and its stakeholders. A roles and responsibility matrix, such as a RACI matrix, is a document that clarifies who is responsible, accountable, consulted, and informed for each task or deliverable in a project or process. A roles and responsibility matrix can help avoid confusion, duplication, or omission of work, as well as ensure accountability and communication among the IT function and its customers, partners, and suppliers. Therefore, an IS auditor should focus on reviewing the roles and responsibility matrix when evaluating the maturity model for a technology organization.
A standard operating procedure (SOP) is a document that describes the steps and instructions for performing a routine or repetitive task or process. SOPs are important for ensuring consistency, quality, and compliance in the IT function, but they are not directly related to the maturity model. A service level agreement (SLA) is a contract that defines the expectations and obligations between an IT service provider and its customers. SLAs are important for ensuring customer satisfaction, performance measurement, and dispute resolution in the IT function, but they are not directly related to the maturity model. A business resiliency plan is a document that outlines how an IT function will continue to operate or recover from a disruption or disaster. Business resiliency is important for ensuring availability, reliability, and security in the IT function, but it is not directly related to the maturity model. References: 1: Maturity Models for IT & Technology | Splunk 2: Responsibility assignment matrix - Wikipedia 3: Roles and Responsibilities Matrix - SDLCforms

Answer: C
Explanation: A stateful firewall provides the greatest assurance that outgoing Internet traffic is controlled, as it monitors and filters packets based on their source, destination and connection state. A stateful firewall can prevent unauthorized or malicious traffic from leaving the network, as well as block incoming traffic that does not match an established connection. An intrusion detection system (IDS) can detect and alert on suspicious or anomalous traffic, but it does not block or control it. A security information and event management (SIEM) system can collect and analyze logs and events from various sources, but it does not directly control traffic. A load balancer can distribute traffic among multiple servers, but it does not filter or monitor it. References: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.2

Answer: B
Explanation: Backup procedures for an organization’s critical data are considered to be corrective controls, as they are designed to restore normal operations after a disruption or failure. Corrective controls aim to minimize the impact of an incident and prevent recurrence. Directive, detective and compensating controls are not related to backup procedures. Directive controls are intended to guide or instruct users to follow policies and procedures. Detective controls are intended to identify and report incidents or violations. Compensating controls are intended to mitigate the risk of a missing or ineffective primary
control. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.11

Answer: A
Explanation: The best method to reduce the risk associated with the transition to a new system using technologies that are not compatible with the old system is parallel changeover. Parallel changeover is a method of system conversion that involves running both the old and the new systems simultaneously for a period of time, until the new system is verified to be working correctly and completely. Parallel changeover can help reduce the risk of data loss, errors, or disruptions that may occur due to the incompatibility of the technologies, as well as provide a backup option in case of failure or malfunction of the new system. Parallel changeover can also help users compare and validate the results of both systems, and facilitate their training and adaptation to the new system.
Modular changeover is a method of system conversion that involves replacing one module or component of the old system with a corresponding module or component of the new system at a time, until the entire system is replaced. Modular changeover can help reduce the complexity and scope of the conversion, as well as minimize the impact on the users and operations. However, modular changeover may not be feasible or effective when the technologies of the old and new systems are not compatible, as it may create integration or interoperability issues among the modules. Phased operation is a method of system conversion that involves implementing the new system in stages or increments, each with a subset of functions or features, until the entire system is operational. Phased operation can help reduce the risk and cost of implementing a large and complex system, as well as allow for testing and feedback at each stage. However, phased operation may not be suitable or efficient when the technologies of the old and new systems are not compatible, as it may require extensive modifications or adaptations to enable partial functionality.
Pilot operation is a method of system conversion that involves implementing the new system in a limited or controlled environment, such as a department or a location, before rolling it out to the entire organization. Pilot operation can help test and evaluate the performance and usability of the new system, as well as identify and resolve any issues or problems before full-scale implementation. However, pilot operation may not be relevant or reliable when the technologies of the old and new systems are not compatible, as it may not reflect the actual conditions or challenges of operating both systems concurrently.
References:

TRANSITION TO THE NEW SYSTEM - O’Reilly Media 1
10 Challenges To Think About When Upgrading From Legacy Systems - Forbes

Answer: D
Explanation: An IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives is a set of principles, guidelines, and practices that help an organization to ensure that its IT investments support its strategic goals, deliver value, manage risks, and optimize resources. One of the benefits of implementing such a framework is that it enables an effective IT portfolio management, which is the process of selecting, prioritizing, monitoring, and evaluating the IT projects and services that comprise the IT portfolio. An IT portfolio is a collection of IT assets, such as applications, infrastructure, data, and capabilities, that are aligned with the business needs and objectives. An IT portfolio management helps an organization to achieve the following outcomes:
Align the IT portfolio with the business strategy and vision
Balance the IT portfolio among different types of investments, such as innovation, growth, maintenance, and compliance
Optimize the IT portfolio performance, value, and risk
Enhance the IT portfolio decision-making and governance
Improve the IT portfolio communication and transparency
Therefore, an inadequate IT portfolio management is a major concern that can be addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives. An inadequate IT portfolio management can result in the following issues:
Misalignment of the IT portfolio with the business needs and expectations
Imbalance of the IT portfolio among competing demands and priorities
Suboptimal use of the IT resources and capabilities
Lack of visibility and accountability of the IT portfolio outcomes and impacts
Poor communication and collaboration among the IT portfolio stakeholders
The other possible options are:
Inaccurate business impact analysis (BIA): A BIA is a process of identifying and assessing the potential effects of a disruption or disaster on the critical business functions and processes. A BIA helps an organization to determine the recovery priorities, objectives, and strategies for its business continuity plan. A BIA is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may use some inputs from the IT portfolio management. Therefore, an inaccurate BIA is not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives. Inadequate IT change management practices: IT change management is a process of controlling and managing the changes to the IT environment, such as hardware, software, configuration, or documentation. IT change management helps an organization to minimize the risks and disruptions caused by the changes, ensure the quality and consistency of the changes, and align the changes with the business requirements. IT change management is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may support some aspects of the IT portfolio management. Therefore, inadequate IT change management practices are not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives.
Lack of a benchmark analysis: A benchmark analysis is a process of comparing an organization’s performance, processes, or practices with those of other organizations or industry standards. A benchmark analysis helps an organization to identify its strengths and weaknesses, set realistic goals and targets, and implement best practices for improvement. A benchmark analysis is not directly related to an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives, although it may provide some insights for the IT portfolio management. Therefore, lack of a benchmark analysis is not a concern that can be effectively addressed by implementing an IT framework for alignment between IT and business objectives. References: 1: What is Portfolio Management? | Smartsheet 2: What Is Portfolio Management? - Definition from Techopedia 3: What Is Project Portfolio Management (PPM)? |ProjectManager.com 4: What Is Business Impact Analysis? | Smartsheet 5: What Is Change Management? - Definition from Techopedia 6: Benchmarking - Wikipedia

Answer: A
Explanation: The best source of information to determine the required level of data protection on a file server is the data classification policy and procedures, which define the criteria and methods for classifying data according to its sensitivity, value, and criticality, and specify the appropriate security measures and controls for each data category. Data classification policy and procedures help to ensure that data is protected in proportion to its importance and risk exposure. Access rights of similar file servers, previous data breach incident reports,and acceptable use policy and privacy statements are not sufficient or reliable sources of information to determine the required level of data protection on a file server, as they do not provide clear and consistent guidance on how to classify and
protectdata. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.1: Information Asset Security Framework

Answer: D
Explanation: The business process owner is the most important stakeholder to involve in the review of the processes that prevent fraud within a business expense claim system. This is because the business process owner is responsible for defining, implementing, and monitoring the business rules and policies that govern the expense claim process. The business process owner also has the authority and accountability to approve or reject expense claims, as well as to investigate and report any suspicious or fraudulent activities. The business process owner can provide valuable insights and feedback to the IS auditor on the effectiveness and efficiency of the current processes, aswell as the potential risks and controls that need to be addressed12.
The information security manager is not the most important stakeholder because their role is mainly focused on ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the information systems and data that support the expense claim process. The information security manager can help the IS auditor with assessing the technical aspects of the system, such as access controls, encryption, logging, and backup, but they may not have sufficient knowledge or authority over the business rules and policies that prevent fraud1.
The quality assurance (QA) manager is not the most important stakeholder because their role is mainly focused on ensuring the quality and reliability of the software applications and systems that support the expense claim process. The QA manager can help the IS auditor with testing and verifying the functionality and performanceof the system, but they may not have sufficient knowledge or authority over the business rules and policies that prevent fraud1.
The business department executive is not the most important stakeholder because their role is mainly focused on overseeing the strategic objectives and financial performance of the business department that uses the expense claim system. The business department executive can help the IS auditor with understanding the business context and needs of the expense claim process, but they may not have sufficient knowledge or authority over the operational details and controls that prevent fraud

Answer: D
Explanation: The greatest concern to an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s method to transport sensitive data between offices is that the method relies exclusively on the use of public key infrastructure (PKI). PKI is a set of tools and procedures that are used to create, manage, and revoke digital certificates and public keys for encryption and authentication1. PKI can provide secure and trustworthy communication over the internet, but it also has some limitations and risks that need to be considered.
One ofthe main limitations of PKI is that it depends on the trustworthiness and security of the certificate authority (CA), which is the entity that issues and verifies the digitalcertificates2. If the CA is compromised or malicious, it can issue fake or fraudulent certificates that can be used to impersonate legitimate parties or intercept sensitive data. For example, in 2011, a hacker breached the CA DigiNotar and issued hundreds of rogue certificates for domains such as Google,Yahoo, and Microsoft3. This allowed the hacker to conduct man-in-the-middle attacks and spy on the online activities of users in Iran3.
Another limitation of PKI is that it requires a complex and costly infrastructure to maintain and operate. PKI involves multiple components, such as servers, software, hardware, policies, and procedures, that need to be configured, updated, and monitored regularly1. PKI also requires a high level of technical expertise and coordination among different parties, such as users, administrators, CAs,and registration authorities (RAs)1. PKI can be vulnerable to human errors or negligence that can compromise its security or functionality. For example, in 2018, a software bug in Apple’s macOS High Sierra caused the system to accept any certificate as valid without checking its validity period. This could have allowed attackers to use expired or revoked certificates to bypass security checks. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if an organization relies exclusively on PKI for transporting sensitive data between offices. PKI can provide a high level of security and trust, but it also has some inherent risks and challenges that need to be addressed. An IS auditor should evaluate whether the organization has implemented adequate controls and measures to ensure the reliability and integrity of its PKI system. An IS auditor should also consider whether the organization has alternative or complementary methods for securing its data transmission, such as using symmetric encryption algorithms or digital
signatures. Symmetric encryption algorithms use the same key for both encryption and decryption, which can offer faster performance and lower overhead than asymmetric encryption algorithms used by PKI4. Digital signatures use cryptographic techniques to verify the identity and authenticity of the sender and the integrity of the data5.

Answer: B
Explanation: The major advantage of automating internal controls is to efficiently test large volumes of data, because automated controls can perform repetitive tasks faster, more accurately, and more consistently than manual controls. Automated controls can also provide audit trails and exception reports that facilitate the monitoring and evaluationof the control effectiveness12. Reviewing large value transactions, identifying transactions with no segregation of duties, and performing analytical reviews are possible benefits of automating internal controls, but not the major advantage. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 2

Answer: A
Explanation: Function point analysis (FPA) is the best methodology to use for estimating the complexity of developing a large business application. FPA is a technique that measures the functionality of a software system based on the user requirements and the business processes that the system supports. FPA assigns a numerical value to each function or feature of the system, based on its type, complexity, and relative size. The total number of function points represents the size and complexity of the system, which can be used to estimate the development effort, cost, and time.
FPA has several advantages over other estimation methods, such as:
It is independent of the technology, programming language, or development methodology used for the system. Therefore, it can be applied consistently across different platforms and environments.
It is based on the user perspective and the business value of the system, rather than the technical details or implementation aspects. Therefore, it can be performed early in the project life cycle, before the design or coding phases. It is objective and standardized, as it follows a set of rules and guidelines defined by the International Function Point Users Group (IFPUG). Therefore, it can reduce ambiguity and improve accuracy and reliability of the estimates.
It is adaptable and scalable, as it can handle changes in the user requirements or the system scope. Therefore, it can support agile and iterative development approaches.
References:

1: Function Point Analysis – Introduction and Fundamentals
2: Software Engineering | Functional Point (FP) Analysis

Answer: A
Explanation: Problem management is the best way to enable the organization to resolve the issue of repeated failures of critical data processing services, as it focuses on identifying and eliminating the root causes of incidents and preventing their recurrence. Problem management involves analyzing incidents, performing root cause analysis, finding solutions, implementing changes and documenting lessons learned. Incident management is not the best way to resolve the issue, as it focuses on restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident occurs, but does not address the underlying causes or prevent future incidents. Service level management is not the best way to resolve the issue, as it focuses on defining, monitoring and reporting on the service levels agreed upon between service providers and customers, but does not address the causes or solutions of incidents. Change management is not the best way to resolve the issue, as it focuses on ensuring that changes are implemented in a controlled and coordinated manner, but does not address the identification or elimination of incidents. References:

: [Problem Management Definition]
: [Incident Management Definition]
: [Service Level Management Definition]
: [Change Management Definition]
: IT Service Management | ISACA

Answer: D
Explanation: Data leakage prevention (DLP) is the process of preventing unauthorized access, disclosure, or transfer of sensitive data. In a multi-tenant cloud environment, where multiple customers share the same infrastructure and resources, DLP is a critical challenge. One of the best methods to enforce DLP in such an environment is to require tenants to implement data classification policies. Data classification policies define the types and levels of sensitivity of data, and the corresponding security controls and measures to protect them. By implementing data classification policies, tenants can ensure that their data is properly labeled, encrypted, segregated, and monitored according to their specific requirements and compliance standards. This can help prevent data leakage from accidental or malicious actions by other tenants, cloud service providers, or external parties.
References:

2: How Do I Secure my Data in a Multi-Tenant Cloud Environment? | Thales
3: Protecting Sensitive Customer Data in a Cloud-Based Multi-Tenant Environment | Saturn Cloud
4: Microsoft 365 isolation controls - Microsoft Service Assurance

Answer: A
Explanation: A business impact analysis (BIA) is a process that identifies and evaluates the potential effects of disruptions to critical business operations as a result of a disaster, accident or emergency. A BIA should include an inventory of relevant business processes that support the organization’s strategic objectives and are essential for its continuity. The inventory should also identify the dependencies, interdependencies, recovery priorities and time frames for each business process. Policies for business procurement, documentation of application configurations and results of business resumption planning efforts are not as useful as an inventory of relevant business processes for performing a BIA. References:

: Business Impact Analysis (BIA) Definition
: Business Impact Analysis (BIA) | ISACA

Answer: A
Explanation: The primary reason for an IS audit manager to review the work performed by a senior IS auditor prior to presentation of a report is to ensure the conclusions are adequately supported. The IS audit manager is responsible for overseeing and supervising the audit process, ensuring the quality and consistency of the audit work, and approving the audit report and recommendations. The IS audit manager should review the work performed by the senior IS auditor to verify that the audit objectives, scope, and criteria have been met, that the audit evidence is sufficient, reliable, and relevant, and that the audit conclusions are logical, objective, and based on the audit evidence. The IS audit manager should also ensure that the audit report is clear, concise, accurate, and complete, and that it communicates the audit findings, conclusions, and recommendations effectively to the intended audience. The other options are not the primary reason for an IS audit manager to reviewthe work performed by a seniorIS auditor prior to presentation of a report, because they either relate to specific aspects or stages of the audit work rather than the overall outcome, or they are part of the senior IS auditor’s responsibility rather thanthe IS audit manager’s. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.5

Answer: B
Explanation: The answer B is correct because data minimization is the most important design consideration to mitigate the risk of exposing data through application programming interface (API) queries. An API is a set of rules and protocols that allows different software components or systems to communicate and exchange data. API queries are requests sent by users or applications to an API to retrieve or manipulate data. For example, a user may query an API to get information about a product, a service, or a location.
Data minimization is the principle of collecting, processing, and storing only the minimum amount of data that are necessary for a specific purpose. Data minimization can help to reduce the risk of exposing data through API queries by limiting the amount and type of data that are available or accessible through the API. Data minimization can also help to protect the privacy and security of the data subjects and the data providers, as well as to comply with the relevant laws and regulations.
Some of the benefits of data minimization for API design are:
Privacy: Data minimization can enhance the privacy of the data subjects by ensuring that only the data that are relevant and essential for the API purpose are collected and processed. This can prevent unnecessary or excessive collection or disclosure of personal or sensitive data, such as names, addresses, phone numbers, email addresses, etc. Data minimization can also help to comply with the privacy laws and regulations that require data protection by design and by default, such as GDPR (General Data Protection Regulation) or CCPA (California Consumer Privacy Act).
Security: Data minimization can improve the security of the data providers by reducing the attack surface and the potential damage of a data breach. If less data are stored or transmitted through the API, there are fewer opportunities for attackers to access or compromise the data. Data minimization can also help to implement security controls such as encryption, access control, or logging more efficiently and effectively.
Performance: Data minimization can increase the performance of the API by optimizing the use of resources and bandwidth. If less data are stored or transmitted through the API, there are less storage space and network traffic required. Data minimization can also help to improve the speed and reliability of the API responses.
Some of the techniques for data minimization in API design are:
Define clear and specific purposes for the API and document them in the API specification or documentation.
Identify and classify the data that are needed for each purpose and assign them appropriate labels or levels, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted. Implement filters or parameters in the API queries that allow users or applications to specify or limit the data fields or attributes they want to retrieve or manipulate. Use pagination or throttling in the API responses that limit the number or size of data items returned per request.
Use anonymization or pseudonymization techniques that remove or replace any identifying information from the data before sending them through the API.
Some examples of web resources that discuss data minimization in API design are:
Data Minimization in Web APIs - World Wide Web Consortium (W3C)
Adding Privacy by Design in Secure Application Development
Chung-ju/Data-Minimization: A repository of related papers. - GitHub

Answer: A
Explanation: It is acceptable for an IS auditor to rely on a third-party provider’s external audit report on service level management when the scope and methodology meet audit requirements. This means that the external audit report covers the same objectives, criteria, standards and procedures that the IS auditor would use to assess the service level management. This way, the IS auditor can avoid duplication of work and reduce audit costs and efforts. The service provider’s certification and accreditation, the report’s confirmation of service levels and the report’s release date are not sufficient to justify reliance on the external audit report. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version) , Chapter 2, Section 2.3.3.

Answer: B
Explanation: The primary advantage of using virtualization technology for corporate applications is to achieve better utilization of resources, such as hardware, software, network and storage. Virtualization technology allows multiple applications to run on a single physical server or device, which reduces the need for additional hardware and maintenance costs. Virtualization technology also enables dynamic allocation and reallocation of resources according to the demand and priority of the applications, which improves efficiency and flexibility. The other options are not the primary advantage of using virtualization technology, although they may be some of the benefits or challenges depending on the implementation and configuration. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 4, section 4.21
ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, section 3.23

Answer: D
Explanation: The most importantoutcome of an information security program is to improve the organizational awareness of security responsibilities, as this will foster a culture of security and ensure that all stakeholders are aware of their roles and obligations in protecting the information assets of the organization. An information security program should also aimto achieve other outcomes, such as identifying operating system weaknesses, understanding and accepting emerging security technologies, and reducing the cost to mitigate information security risk, but these are not as important as improving the awareness of security responsibilities, which is the foundation of any effective information security program. *References: According to the ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards, Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 2402 Planning, “The IS audit and assurance professional should identify and assess risk relevant to the area under review.” 1 One of the risk factors to consider is “the level of awareness of management and staff regarding IT risk management” 1. According to the ISACAIT Audit and Assurance Guideline G13 Information Security Management, “The objective of an information security management audit/assurancereview is to provide management with an independent assessment relating to the effectiveness of information security management within the enterprise.” The guideline also states that “the audit/assurance professional should evaluate whether there is an appropriate level of awareness throughout the enterprise regarding information security policies, standards, procedures and guidelines.” According to a web search result from Microsoft Security, “Information security programs need to: … Support the execution of decisions.” 2 One of the ways to support the execution of decisions is to ensure that everyone in the organization understands their security responsibilities and follows the security policies and procedures.

Answer: C
Explanation: The programmer having access to the production programs is a control weakness that would have contributed most to the problem of unauthorized changes to key fields in a payroll system report. This is because it violates the principle of segregation of duties, which requires that different individuals or groups perform different functions related to system development, testing, implementation, and operation. Allowing programmers to access production programs increases the risk of errors, fraud, or malicious actions that may compromise the integrity, availability, or confidentiality of the system or its data. The other options are not as significant as having access to production programs, as they relate to other aspects of system development or maintenance, such as user involvement in testing (which affects user satisfaction and acceptance), user requirements documentation (which affects system functionalityand quality), and payroll files control (which affects data security and accuracy). References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation, Section 3.2 Project Management Practices

Answer: B
Explanation: A digital signature is the most appropriate control to ensure integrity of online orders because it provides a way to verify the authenticity and integrity of the data sent by the sender. A digital signature is created by applying a cryptographic algorithm to the data and attaching the result to the data. The receiver can then use the sender’s public key to verify that the data has not been altered or tampered with during transmission. A digital signature also provides non-repudiation, which means that the sender cannot deny sending the data. Data Encryption Standard (DES) is a symmetric encryption algorithm that can provide confidentiality of online orders, but not integrity. DES uses the same key to encrypt and decrypt the data, which means that anyone who has the key can modify the data without detection.
Public key encryption is an asymmetric encryption algorithm that can also provide confidentiality of online orders, but not integrity. Public key encryption uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The sender encrypts the data with the receiver’s public key, and the receiver decrypts it with their own private key. However, public key encryption does not prevent anyone from modifying the encrypted data.
Multi-factor authentication is a control that can provide authentication and authorization of online orders, but not integrity. Multi-factor authentication requires the user to provide two or more pieces of evidence to prove their identity, such as a password, a token, or a biometric factor. Multi-factor authentication can prevent unauthorized access to online orders, but it does not protect the data from being modified after being sent.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 281 1
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 MonthSubscription 2

Answer: A
Explanation: The best option to provide an IS auditor assurance that the interface between a point-ofsale (POS) system and the general ledger is transferring sales data completely and accurately is A. Electronic copies of customer sales receipts are maintained. Electronic copies of customer sales receipts are records of the transactions that occurred at the POS system, which can be compared with the data transferred to the general ledger. This can help detect any errors, omissions, or discrepancies in the data transfer process and ensure that the sales data is complete and accurate. The other options are not as effective as A in providing assurance that the interface between the POS system and the general ledger is transferring sales data completely and accurately.
B. Monthly bank statements are reconciled without exception. Monthly bank statements are records of the cash inflows and outflows of the organization, which may not match with the sales data recorded by the POS system and the general ledger. For example, there may be delays, discounts, returns, or refundsthat affect the cash flow but not the sales revenue. Therefore, reconciling monthly bank statements without exception does not necessarily mean that the sales data is complete and accurate. C. Nightly batch processing has been replaced with real-time processing. Nightly batch processing is a method of transferring data from the POS system to the general ledger in batches at a scheduled time, usually at night. Real-time processing is a method of transferring data from the POS system to the general ledger as soon as the transactions occur. Real-time processing may improve the timeliness and efficiency of the data transfer process, but it does not guarantee that the sales data is complete and accurate. There may still be errors, omissions, or discrepancies in the data transfer process that need to be detected and corrected. D. The data transferred over the POS interface is encrypted. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm, so that only authorized parties can access the original data. Encryption protects the confidentiality and security of the data transferred over the POS interface, but it does not ensure that the sales data is complete and accurate. There may still be errors, omissions, or discrepancies in the data transfer process that need to be detected and corrected.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 2471
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription2
Sales Audit Overview - Oracle3 Notes on Audit of Ledgers - Guidelines to Auditors - Accountlearning

Answer: C
Explanation: The most important thing to assess when conducting a business impact analysis (BIA) is the completeness of critical asset inventory. This is because the critical asset inventory is the basis for identifying and prioritizing the business processes, functions, and resources that are essential for thecontinuity of operations. The critical asset inventory should include both tangible and intangible assets, such as hardware, software, data, personnel, facilities, contracts, and reputation. The critical asset inventory should also be updated regularly to reflect any changes in the business environment or needs. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.41
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 3, Module 3, Lesson 12

Answer: B
Explanation: The use of control totals satisfies the control objective of processing integrity. Processing integrity refers to the accuracy, completeness, timeliness, and validity of data processing. Control totals are a method of verifying the correctness of data processing by comparing the total value or count of a batch of transactions before and after processing. For example, if a batch of 100 invoices is entered into an accounting system, the total amount and number of invoices should match before and after processing. If there is a discrepancy, it indicates an error in data entry, transmission, or processing. Control totals help to ensure that no transactions are lost, duplicated, or altered during processing.
References:

Control Objectives & Activities: Examples, Appropriateness
Levels and Types of Control | Principles ofManagement
CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 337

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way for the auditor to address this issue is to verify management has approved a policy exception to accept the risk. A policy exception is a formal authorization that allows a deviation from the established policy requirements for a specific situation or period of time. A policy exception should be based on a risk assessment that evaluates the impact and likelihood of the potential threats and vulnerabilities, as well as the cost and benefit of the alternative controls. A policy exception should also be documented, approved, and monitored by management.
Recommending the application be patched to meet requirements is not the best way for the auditor to address this issue. Patching the application may not be feasible, cost-effective, or timely, given that the application will be decommissioned in three months. Patching the application may also introduce new risks or errors that could affect the functionality or performance of the application.
Informing the IT director of the policy noncompliance is not the best way for the auditor to address this issue. Informing the IT director of the policy noncompliance may not resolve the issue or mitigate the risk, especially if the IT director is already aware of the situation and has decided to accept it. Informing the IT director of the policy noncompliance may also create unnecessary conflict or tension between the auditor and the auditee.
Taking no action since the application will be decommissioned in three months is not the best way for the auditor to address this issue. Taking no action may expose the
organization to significant risks or consequences, such as data breaches, regulatory fines, or reputational damage, if the application is compromised or exploited by malicious actors. Taking no action may also violate the auditor’s professional standards and responsibilities, such as due care, objectivity, and reporting.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 289
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
Cybersecurity Engineering for Legacy Systems: 6 Recommendations - SEI Blog
How to Secure Your Company’s Legacy Applications - iCorps

Answer: C
Explanation: An organization is shifting to a remote workforce. In preparation, the IT department is performing stress and capacity testing of remote access infrastructure and systems. This type of control is being implemented to direct or guide actions to achieve a desired Question No : 546 - (Topic 4) Isaca CISA : Practice Test outcome. Therefore, it is a directive control. Directive controls are proactive controls that seek to prevent undesirable events from occurring. They include policies, standards, procedures, guidelines, training, and testing. Detective controls are reactive controls that seek to identify undesirable events that have already occurred. They include monitoring, logging, auditing, and reporting. Preventive controls are proactive controls that seek to avoid undesirable events from occurring. They include authentication, encryption, firewalls, and antivirus software. Compensating controls are alternative controls that provide a similar level of protection as the primary controls when the primary controls are not feasible or cost-effective. They include segregation of duties, manual reviews, and backup
systems. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Glossary of Terms]

Answer: B
Explanation: The IS auditor’s best course of action when preparing the final report is to include the position supported by senior management in the final engagement report. The IS auditor should communicate the audit findings and recommendations to senior management and obtain their feedback and approval before issuing the final report. If there is a disagreement between the auditee and the IS auditor regarding a recommendation for corrective action, the IS auditor should present both sides of the argument and the supporting evidence, and seek senior management’s opinion and decision. The IS auditor should respect and follow senior management’s position, and include it in the final engagement report, along with the auditee’s comments if applicable. The other options arenot the best course of action, because they either do not resolve the disagreement, do notreflect senior management’s authority, or do not report the audit results accurately and completely. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.5

Answer: B
Explanation: Due professional care is the obligation of an IS auditor to exercise the appropriate level of skill, competence, and diligence in performing an audit. It also requires the IS auditor to comply with the relevant standards, guidelines, and ethical principles of the profession. Completing an engagement by email only may compromise due professional care, as it may limit the IS auditor’s ability to obtain sufficient and appropriate evidence, to communicate effectively with the auditee and other stakeholders, and to perform adequate quality assurance and review procedures. The other options are not as relevant as due professional care, as they relate to specific aspects of an audit, such as proficiency (the knowledge and skills of the IS auditor), sufficient evidence (the quantity and quality of the audit evidence), and reporting (the presentation and communication of the audit
results). References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.2 ISACA IT Audit and Assurance Standards

Answer: B
Explanation: The use of access control lists (ACLs) is the most effective method to mitigate security risk for routers because they can limit Telnet and traffic from the open Internet. Telnet is a protocol that allows remote access to a device, which can pose a security threat if not properly controlled. Traffic from the open Internet can also contain malicious packets that can harm the network or the router itself. ACLs act as filters that can block or allow specific types of traffic based on predefined criteria, such as source and destination addresses, protocols, ports, and flags. By using ACLs, routers can prevent unauthorized access and reduce the exposure to potential attacks.
References:

Protecting Your Core: Infrastructure Protection Access Control Lists
Definition, purposes, benefits, and functions of ACL
CISA Review Manual 27th Edition, page 336

Answer: A
Explanation: Stress testing is a type of performance testing that evaluates how a system behaves under extreme load conditions, such as high user traffic, large data volumes, or limited resources. It is useful for identifying potential bottlenecks, errors, or failures that may affect the system’s functionality or availability. Stress testing during the quality assurance (QA) phase would have identified the concern of users complaining that a newly released ERP system is functioning too slowly. The other options are not as relevant for this concern, as they relate to different aspects of testing, such as regression testing (verifying that existing functionality is not affected by new changes), interface testing (verifying that the system interacts correctly with other systems or components), or integration testing (verifying that the system works as a whole after combining different modules or units). References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.4 Testing Techniques1

Answer: D
Explanation: The most important thing to define within a disaster recovery plan (DRP) is the roles and responsibilities for recovery team members, as this ensures that everyone knows what to do, who to report to, and how to communicate in the event of a disaster. A business continuity plan (BCP) is a broader document that covers the overall strategy and objectives for maintaining or resuming business operations after a disaster. Test results for backup data restoration are important to verify the integrity and availability of backup data, but they are not part of the DRP itself. A comprehensive list of disaster recovery scenarios and priorities is useful to identify the potential risks and impacts of different types of disasters, but it is not as critical as defining the roles and responsibilities for recovery team members. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations, Maintenance and Service Management, Section 4.3: Disaster Recovery Planning1

Answer: C
Explanation: The finding that presents the most significant risk when reviewing the deployment of a new automated system is that data from the legacy system is not migrated correctly to the new system. Data migration is a critical process that involves transferring data from one system to another, ensuring its accuracy, completeness, integrity, and usability. If data migration is not performed correctly, it can result in data loss, corruption, inconsistency, or duplication, which can affect the functionality, performance, reliability, and security of the new system. Data migration errors can also have serious business implications, such as affecting decision making, reporting, compliance, customer service, and revenue. The other findings (A, B and D) are less significant risks, as they can be mitigated by rehiring or retraining personnel, providing user training, or adapting the system to different platforms.

Answer: C
Explanation: The auditor’s best course of action is to document the finding and explain the risk of having administrator accounts with inappropriate security settings. This is because the auditor’s role is to identify and report the issues, not to fix them or request others to fix them. The auditor should also communicate the impact of the finding, such as the possibility of unauthorized access, data tampering, or denial of service attacks. The auditor should not assume the responsibility of the IT manager or the DBA, who are in charge of changing the security parameters or disabling the accounts. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 3, Lesson 32

Answer: B
Explanation: The finding that should be of greatest concern to an IS auditor assessing the effectiveness of an organization’s vulnerability scanning program is that results are not reported to individuals with authority to ensure resolution. This indicates a lack of accountability and communication for vulnerability management, which may result in unresolved or delayed remediation of identified vulnerabilities. This may expose the organization to increased risk of cyberattacks or breaches. The other findings are also concerning, but not as much as this one, because they may affect the completeness, accuracy or timeliness of the vulnerability scanning process, but not necessarily its effectiveness. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 4, section 4.41
ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, section 3.2

Answer: C
Explanation: The primary benefit of automating application testing is to provide test consistency. Automated testing can ensure that the same test cases are executed in the same manner and order every time, which can improve the reliability and accuracy of the test results. Providing more flexibility, replacing all manual test processes, and reducing the time to review code are possible benefits of automating application testing, but they are not the primary benefit. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, p. 3091
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: B
Explanation: The best process for continuous auditing for a large financial institution is validating access controls for real-time data systems. This is because access controls are critical for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the financial data that is processed and transmitted by the real-time data systems. Real-time data systems are systems that provide timely and accurate information to support decision-making and transactions in a dynamic and complex environment. Examples of real-time data systems in the financial sector include payment systems, trading platforms, risk management systems, and fraud detection systems. Continuous auditing of access controls can help detect and prevent unauthorized access, data leakage, data manipulation, or data loss that could compromise the security, reliability, or compliance of the real-time data systems.
Testing encryption standards on the disaster recovery system is not the best process for continuous auditing for a large financial institution. Encryption standards are important for protecting the data stored or transmitted by the disaster recovery system, which is a system that provides backup and recovery capabilities in case of a disruption or disaster. However, testing encryption standards is not a continuous process, but rather a periodic or event-driven process that can be performed as part of the disaster recovery plan testing or validation.
Performing parallel testing between systems is not the best process for continuous auditing for a large financial institution. Parallel testing is a process of comparing the results of two or more systems that perform the same function or task, such as a new system and an old system, or a primary system and a backup system. Parallel testing can help verify the accuracy, consistency, and compatibility of the systems. However, parallel testing is not a continuous process, but rather a temporary or transitional process that can be performed as part of the system implementation or migration.
Validating performance of help desk metrics is not the best process for continuous auditing for a large financial institution. Help desk metrics are indicators that measure the efficiency, effectiveness, and quality of the help desk service, which is a service that provides technical support and assistance to the users of information systems and technology. Help desk metrics can include metrics such as response time, resolution time, customer satisfaction, and service level agreement (SLA) compliance. Validating performance of help desk metrics can help evaluate and improve the help desk service. However, validating performance of help desk metrics is not a continuous auditing process, but rather a continuous monitoring process that can be performed by the help desk management or quality assurance team.
References:
All eyes on: Continuous auditing - KPMG Global 1
Internal audit’s role at financial institutions: PwC 2
The Fed - Supervisory Policy and Guidance Topics - Large Banking … 3
Continuous Audit: Definition, Steps, Advantages and Disadvantages 4

Answer: B
Explanation: The best situation that justifies the use of a smaller sample size when testing the accuracy of transaction data is B. It is expected that the population is error-free. The sample size is the number of items selected from the population for testing. The sample size depends on various factors, such as the level of confidence, the tolerable error rate, the expected error rate, and the variability of the population. A smaller sample size means that fewer items are tested, which reduces the cost and time of testing, but also increases the sampling risk (the risk that the sample is not representative of the population).
One of the factors that affects the sample size is the expected error rate, which is the auditor’s best estimate of the proportion of errors in the population before testing. A higher expected error rate means that more errors are likely to be found in the population, which requires a larger sample size to provide sufficient evidence for the auditor’s conclusion. A lower expected error rate means that fewer errors are likely to be found in the population, which allows a smaller sample size to provide sufficient evidence for the auditor’s conclusion. Therefore, if it is expected that the population is error-free (i.e., the expected error rate is zero or very low), a smaller sample size can be justified.
The other situations do not justify the use of a smaller sample size when testing the accuracy of transaction data. A. The IS audit staff has a high level of experience. The IS audit staff’s level of experience does not affect the sample size, but rather their ability to design and execute the sampling procedures and evaluate the results. The IS audit staff’s level of experience may affect their judgment in selecting and applying sampling methods, but it does not change the statistical or mathematical principles that determine the sample size. B. Proper segregation of duties is in place. Proper segregation of duties is an internal control that helps prevent or detect errors or fraud in transaction processing, but it does not affect the sample size. The sample size is based on the characteristics of the population and the objectives of testing, not on the controls in place. Proper segregation of duties may reduce the likelihood or impact of errors or fraud in transaction processing, but it does not eliminate them completely. Therefore, proper segregation of duties does not justify a smaller sample size when testing the accuracy of transaction data. C. The data can be directly changed by users. The data’s ability to be directly changed by users does not justify a smaller sample size, but rather a larger one. The data’s ability to be directly changed by users increases the risk of errors or fraud in transaction processing, which requires a larger sample size to provide sufficient evidence for the auditor’s conclusion. The data’s ability to be directly changed by users also increases the variability of the population, which affects the sample size.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 2471
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database- 12 Month Subscription2
Audit Sampling - AICPA3
How to choose a sample size (for the statistically challenged)

Answer: D
Explanation: The auditor’s best course of action after discovering instances where employees shared license keys to critical pieces of business software is to verify whether the licensing agreement allows shared use. A licensing agreement is a contract between the software provider and the user that defines the terms and conditions of using the software, including the number, type, and scope of licenses granted. Some licensing agreements may allow shared use of license keys among multiple users or devices, while others may prohibit or restrict such use. By verifying the licensing agreement, the auditor can determine whether the employees violated the contract or not, and whether there are any legal or financial risks or implications for the organization.
The other options are not as appropriate as option D, as they may not address the root cause of the issue or provide a comprehensive solution. Recommending the utilization of software licensing monitoring tools may help prevent or detect future instances of license key sharing, but it does not resolve the current situation or ensure compliance with the licensing agreement. Recommending the purchase of additional software license keys may be unnecessary or wasteful if the licensing agreement already allows shared use or if there are unused licenses available. Validating user need for shared software licenses may help identify the reasons or motivations behind license key sharing, but it does not justify or excuse such behavior if it violates the licensing agreement.
References:

9: Best License Management Software 2023 | Capterra
10: Best 10 Software License Management Tools in 2023 | Zluri
11: Top 10 Software License Tracking Tools | Zluri
12: Top 5 Software License Tracking Solutions in 2023 - DNSstuff

Answer: A
Explanation: The primary reason to perform a risk assessment is to determine the current risk profile of the organization, which is the level of risk exposure and the likelihood and impact of potential threats. This will help the organization to identify and prioritize the risks that need to be addressed and to align the risk management strategy with the business objectives. A risk assessment may also help to achieve compliance, support the BIA, and allocate budget, but these are not the primary reasons. References: ISACA Glossary of Terms, section “risk assessment”

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest concern to an IS auditor who is assessing an organization’s configuration and release management process is that changes and change approvals are not documented. This is because documentation is essential for ensuring the traceability, accountability, and quality of the changes made to the configuration items (CIs) and the releases deployed to the production environment. Without documentation, it would be difficult to verify the authenticity, validity, and authorization of the changes, as well as to identify and resolve any issues or incidents that may arise from the changes. Documentation also helps to maintain compliance with internal and external standards and regulations, as well as to facilitate audits and reviews.
The other options are not as concerning as option B, although they may also indicate some weaknesses in the configuration and release management process. The organization does not use an industry-recognized methodology, but this does not necessarily mean that their process is ineffective or inefficient. The organization may have developed their own methodology that suits their specific needs and context. However, using an industryrecognized methodology could help them adopt best practices and improve their process maturity. All changes require middle and senior management approval, but this may not be a problem if the organization has a clear and streamlined approval process that does not cause delays or bottlenecks in the change implementation. However, requiring too many approvals could also introduce unnecessary complexity and bureaucracy in the process. There is no centralized configuration management database (CMDB), but this does not mean that the organization does not have a way of managing their CIs and their relationships. The organization may use other tools or methods to store and access their configuration data, such as spreadsheets, documents, or repositories. However, having a centralized CMDB could help them improve their visibility, accuracy, and consistency of their configuration data.
References:

1: The Essential Guide to Release Management | Smartsheet
2: 5 steps to a successful release management process - Lucidchart
3: Configuration Management process overview - Micro Focus
4: Release and Deployment Management process overview - Micro Focus

Answer: B
Explanation: The answer B is correct because a system-generated list of staff and their project assignments, roles, and responsibilities is the most useful to an IS auditor performing a review of access controls for a document management system. A document management system is a software that helps organizations store, manage, and share documents electronically. Access controls are the mechanisms that restrict or allow access to the documents based on predefined criteria, such as user identity, role, or project. An IS auditor needs to verify that the access controls are properly configured and implemented to ensure the security, confidentiality, and integrity of the documents. A system-generated list of staff and their project assignments, roles, and responsibilities can help the IS auditor to perform the following tasks:
Identify the users who have access to the document management system and their level of access (e.g., read-only, edit, delete, etc.).
Compare the actual access rights of the users with their expected or authorized access rights based on their roles and responsibilities.
Detect any anomalies, discrepancies, or violations in the access rights of the users, such as excessive or unauthorized access, segregation of duties conflicts, or dormant or inactive accounts.
Evaluate the effectiveness and efficiency of the access control policies and procedures, such as user provisioning, deprovisioning, authentication, authorization, auditing, etc
The other options are not as useful as option B. Policies and procedures for managing documents provided by department heads (option A) are not reliable sources of information for an IS auditor because they may not reflect the actual practices or compliance status of the document management system. Previous audit reports related to other departments’ use of the same system (option C) are not relevant for an IS auditor because they may not address the specific issues or risks associatedwith the current department’s use of the document management system. Information provided by the audit team lead on the authentication systems used by the department (option D) is not sufficient for an IS auditor because authentication is only one aspect of access control and it does not provide information on the authorization or auditing of the document access.
References:

Overview of document management in SharePoint
Setting Up a Document Control System: 6 Basic Steps
Access Control Management: Purpose, Types,Tools, & Benefits
9 Best Document Management Systems of 2023

Answer: A
Explanation: A primary responsibility of an IT steering committee is prioritizing IT projects in accordance with business requirements, as this ensures that IT resources are allocated to support the strategic objectives and needs of the organization. Reviewing periodic IT risk assessments, validating and monitoring the skill sets of IT department staff, and establishing IT budgets for the business are important activities, but they are not the primary responsibility of an IT steering committee. They may be delegated to other IT governance bodies or functions within the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: IT Governance

Answer: A
Explanation: Limiting the use of logs to only those purposes for which they were collected is the best way to address potential data privacy concerns associated with inadvertent disclosure of machine identifier information contained within security logs, because it minimizes the risk of unauthorized access, misuse, or leakage of personal data that may be embedded in the logs. Logs should be collected and processed in accordance with the data protection principles and regulations, such as theGeneral Data Protection Regulation
(GDPR)12. Restricting the transfer of log files from host machine to online storage, only collecting logs from servers classified as business critical, and limiting log collection toonly periods of increased security activity are not effective ways to address data privacy concerns, because they do not prevent or mitigate the potential disclosure of personal datain the logs. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.4 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4

Answer: D
Explanation: The best way to help ensure new IT implementations align with enterprise architecture (EA) principles and requirements is to conduct EA reviews as part of the change advisory board (CAB). A CAB is a committee that evaluates and authorizes changes to IT services, such as new IT implementations. By conducting EA reviews as part of the CAB process, the organization can ensure that the proposed changes are consistent with the EA vision, goals, standards, and guidelines. This can help avoid potential conflicts, risks, or inefficiencies that may arise from misaligned IT implementations. Additionally, EA reviews can help identify opportunities for improvement, optimization, or innovation in the IT services.
The other options are not the best ways to help ensure new IT implementations align with EA principles and requirements. Documenting the security view as part of the EA is important, but it does not guarantee that new IT implementations will follow the security requirements or best practices. Considering stakeholder concerns when defining the EA is also essential, but it does not ensure that new IT implementations will meet the stakeholder expectations or needs. Performing mandatory post-implementation reviews of IT implementations is a good practice, but it does not prevent potential issues or problems that may arise from misaligned IT implementations.
References:

5: Change Advisory Board Best Practices: 15+ Industry Leaders Weigh In
6: What Does the Change Advisory Board (CAB) Do?
7: How do I set up an effective change advisory board? - ServiceNow
8: ITIL Change Management - The Role of the Change Advisory Board

Answer: A
Explanation: The best indication to an IS auditor that management’s post-implementation review was effective is that lessons learned were documented and applied, as this shows that the management has identified and addressed the issues and gaps that arose during the implementation, and has improved the processes and practices for future projects. Business and IT stakeholders participating in the post-implementation review is a good practice, but it does not guarantee that the review was effective or that the outcomes were implemented. Post-implementation review being a formal phase in the system development life cycle (SDLC) is a requirement, but it does not ensure that the review was effective or that the outcomes were implemented. Internal audit follow-up being completed without any findings is a desirable result, but it does not indicate that the management’s post-implementation review was effectiveorthat the outcomes were
implemented. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development andImplementation, Section 3.2: Project Management Practices1

Answer: D
Explanation: A project business case is a document that describes the rationale and justification for initiating a project, based on its expected costs, benefits, risks, and feasibility. A project business case provides the most useful information to an IS auditor when selecting projects for inclusion in an IT audit plan, because it helps the IS auditor to: Understand the purpose, scope, objectives, and deliverables of the project Assess the alignment of the project with the organization’s strategy, vision, and goals
Evaluate the value proposition and return on investment of the project
Identify the key stakeholders, sponsors, and owners of the project
Analyze the potential risks and issues associated with the project
Compare and prioritize the project with other competing projects
The other possible options are:
A. Project charter: A project charter is a document that formally authorizes and defines the high-level scope, roles, responsibilities, and authority of a project. A project charter provides some useful information to an IS auditor when selecting projects for inclusion in an IT audit plan, but it is not the most useful information. A project charter does not provide enough details about the costs, benefits, risks, and feasibility of the project, which are essential for evaluating its suitability for an IT audit plan.
B. Project plan: A project plan is a document that outlines the detailed scope, schedule, budget, resources, quality, and communication plans of a project. A project plan provides some useful information to an IS auditor when selecting projects for inclusion in an IT audit plan, but it is not the most useful information. A project plan does not provide enough information about the rationale, justification, value proposition, and alignment of the project with the organization’s strategy and goals, which are important for assessing its relevance for an IT audit plan.
C. Project issue log: A project issue log is a document that records and tracks the issues that arise during a project’s execution and how they are resolved. A project issue log provides some useful information to an IS auditor when selecting projects for inclusion in an IT audit plan, but it is not the most useful information. A project issue log does not provide enough information about the purpose, objectives, benefits, and feasibility of the project, which are critical for determining its priority for an IT audit plan.

Answer: C
Explanation: The quality assurance (QA) phase is the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. This is because the QA phase is the phase where the system is tested and verified against the user specifications and the design specifications to ensure that it meets the functional and non-functional requirements, as well as the quality standards and expectations. The QA phase involves various testing activities, such as unit testing, integration testing, system testing, acceptance testing, performance testing, security testing, etc., to identify and resolve any defects, errors, or deviations from the specifications12.
The configuration phase is not the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. The configuration phase is the phase where the system is installed and configured on the target environment, such as hardware, software, network, etc., to prepare it for deployment and operation. The configuration phase may involve activities such as installation, customization, migration, integration, etc., to ensure that the system is compatible and interoperable with the existinginfrastructure and systems34.
The user training phase is not the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. The user training phase is the phase where the end-users are trained and educated on how to use the system effectively and efficiently. The user training phase may involve activities such as developing training materials, conducting training sessions, providing feedback and support, etc., to ensure that the users are familiar and comfortable with the system features and functions56.
The development phase is not the phase where the IS auditor should first examine requirements from an in-house SDLC project that has not met user specifications. The development phase is the phase where the system is coded and built based on the design specifications and the user specifications. The development phase may involve activities such as programming, debugging, documenting, etc., to create a working prototype or a final product of the system

Answer: D
Explanation: The auditor’s best action is to re-perform the audit before changing the conclusion, because the auditor needs to obtain sufficient and appropriate evidence to support the audit opinion. The evidence provided by IT management may not be reliable or relevant, and it may not reflect the actual effectiveness of the control during the audit period. Therefore, the auditor should verify the evidence independently and test the control again to ensure that it meets the audit criteria and objectives. The other options are not appropriate, because they either ignore or accept the evidence provided by IT management without verification, which may compromise the quality and integrity of the audit. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, chapter 1, section 1.51
ISACA, IT Audit and Assurance Standards,Guidelines and Tools and Techniques for IS Audit and Assurance Professionals, section 12062

Answer: C
Explanation: The best source ofinformation for examining the classification of new data is the risk assessment results, because they provide an objective and consistent basis for determining the value, sensitivity, and criticality of the data, as well as the potential impact of unauthorized disclosure, modification, or loss of the data12. The risk assessment results can help to definethe appropriate classification levels and criteria for the data, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted12. Input by data custodians, security policy requirements, and current levelof protection are not the best sources of information for examining the classification of new data, because they may not reflect the actual risk exposure or business needs of the data. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section5.4.2 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4

Answer: C
Explanation: The most important issue for an IS auditor to consider with regard to Voice-over IP (VoIP) communications is the homogeneity of the network, because it affects the quality, security, and reliability of the VoIP service. Ahomogeneous network is one that uses a single protocol or standard for VoIP communication, such as Session Initiation Protocol (SIP) or H.32312. A homogeneous network can reduce thecomplexity, latency, and interoperability issues that may arise from using different or incompatible protocols or devices forVoIP communication12. Continuity of service, identity management, and nonrepudiation are also important issues for VoIP communications, but not as important as the homogeneity of the network. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.4.3 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 4, Lesson 4

Answer: B
Explanation: Data classification is the first consideration when deciding whether data should be moved to a cloud provider for storage because it determines the level of protection and security required for the data. Data classification also helps to identify the legal and regulatory requirements that apply to the data, such as privacy, retention and disposal policies. Data storage costs, vendor cloud certification and service level agreements (SLAs) are important factors to consider, but they are secondary to data classification. References: CISAReview Manual (Digital Version) 1, Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2

Answer: D
Explanation: The organization is primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application’s operating system when migrating its HR application to an Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) model in a private cloud. This is because in an IaaS model, the cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure that they lease to their customers, such as servers, storage, and networks, while the customer is responsible for the security of the areas of the cloud infrastructure over which they have control, such as operating systems, middleware, and applications. Therefore, the organization needs to ensure that the operating system is properly configured, patched, hardened, and monitored to protect the HR application from unauthorized access or malicious attacks.
The other options are not primarily responsible for the security configurations of the deployed application’s operating system. The cloud provider’s external auditor is not responsible for any security configurations, but rather for verifying and reporting on the cloud provider’s compliance with relevant standards and regulations. The cloud provider is responsible for the security of the underlying infrastructure, but not for the operating system or any software installed on it by the customer. The operating system vendor is responsible for providing updates and patches for the operating system, but not for configuring or securing it according to the customer’s needs.
References:
11: What Is IaaS (Infrastructure As A Service)? - Forbes
12: What is Shared Responsibility Model? - Check Point Software
13: Who Is Responsible for Cloud Security? - Security Intelligence

Answer: B

Answer: D
Explanation: The most important process to help ensure the application provides accurate calculations is quality assurance (QA), which involves verifying that the application meets the specified requirements and standards, and testing the application for functionality, performance, reliability, security, and usability. QA helps to identify and correct any defects or errors in the application before it is deployed to the production environment. Key performance indicator (KPI) monitoring, change management, and configuration management are important processes for managing and maintaining the application after it is implemented, but they do not directly ensure the accuracy of the calculationsperformed by the application. References: CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.3: Practices for Quality Assurance

Answer: D
Explanation: Implementing incident escalation procedures is the best way to ensure that an incident receives attention from appropriate personnel in a timely manner, because it defines the roles and responsibilities, communication channels, and escalation criteria for handlingdifferent types of incidents34. Incident escalation procedures help to prioritize and coordinate the response efforts and ensure that the incident is resolved by the most qualified and authorized personnel. Completing the incident management log, broadcasting an emergency message, and requiring a dedicated incident response team are not sufficient to ensure that an incident receives attention from appropriate personnel in a timely manner, because they do not specify how to escalate the incident based onits severity, impact,or complexity. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.3.2 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 6, Lesson 3

Answer: B
Explanation: KPIs are not clearly defined is the most concerning finding for an IS auditor, because it implies that the third-party vendor does not have a clear understanding of what constitutes success or failure in their performance. This can lead to inaccurate or misleading reporting, poor decision making, and lack of accountability. KPIs should be SMART (specific, measurable, achievable, relevant, and time-bound) and aligned with the business objectives and expectations of the stakeholders12. References: 1: CISAReview Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.2 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 3

Answer: A
Explanation: A vendor requires privileged access to a key business application. The best recommendation to reduce the risk of data leakage is to implement real-time activity monitoring for privileged roles. This is because real-time activity monitoring can provide visibility and accountability for the actions performed by the vendor with privileged access, such as creating, modifying, deleting, or copying data. Real-time activity monitoring can also enable timely detection and response to any unauthorized or suspicious activities that may indicate data leakage. Including the right-to-audit in the vendor contract is a good practice, but it may not be sufficient to prevent or detect data leakage in a timely manner, as audits are usually performed periodically or on-demand. Performing a review of privileged roles and responsibilities is also a good practice, but it may not address the specific risk of data leakage by the vendor with privileged access. Requiring the vendor to implement job rotation for privileged roles may reduce the risk of collusion or fraud, but it may not prevent or detect data leakage by any individual with privileged
access. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Privacy Principles and Program Management Guide]

Answer: C
Explanation: A business impact analysis (BIA) is the process of identifying and assessing the potential impacts a disruption or incident could have on an organization. A BIA helps organizations understand and prepare for these potential obstacles, so they can act quickly and face challenges head-on when they arise. A BIA tells the organization what to expect when unforeseen roadblocks occur, so they can make a plan to get their business back on track as quickly as possible. Therefore, a BIA is the best option to anticipate the effects of a disaster.
References:

10: Business Impact Analysis (BIA): Prepare for Anything [2023] • Asana
11: Definition of Business Impact Analysis (BIA) - IT Glossary | Gartner Information Technology
12: Business impact analysis (BIA) is a method to predict the consequences of disruptions to a business, its processes and systems by collecting relevant data.

Answer: B
Explanation: This means that the IT investments are aligned with the strategic goals and priorities of the organization, and that they deliver value and benefits to the business. Mapping IT investments to specific business objectives can help ensure that the IT investments are relevant, justified, and measurable, and that they support the organization’s mission and vision.
IT investments are implemented and monitored following a system development life cycle (SDLC) is an indication of effective IT project management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management. The SDLC is a framework that guides the development and implementation of IT systemsand applications, but it does not address the alignment, justification, or measurement of the IT investments.
Key performance indicators (KPIs) are defined for each business requiring IT investment is an indication of effective IT performance management, but not necessarily of effective IT investment management. KPIs are metrics that measure the outcomes and results of IT activities and processes, but they do not address the alignment, justification, or value of the IT investments.
The IT investment budget is significantly below industry benchmarks is not an indication of effective IT investment management, but rather of low IT spending. The IT investment budget should be based on the organization’s needs and capabilities, and not on external comparisons. A low IT investment budget may indicate that the organization is underinvesting in IT, which could limit its potential for growth and innovation.

Answer: A
Explanation: The best way to improve the visibility of end-user computing (EUC) applications that support regulatory reporting is to maintain an EUC inventory, as this provides a comprehensive and up-to-date list of all EUC applications, their owners, their locations, their purposes, and their dependencies. An EUC inventory can help identify and manage the risks associated with EUC applications, such as data quality, security, compliance, and continuity. EUC availability controls, EUC access control matrix, and EUC tests of operational effectiveness are important forensuring the reliability and security of EUC applications, but they do not improve the visibility of EUC applications as much as an EUC inventory. References: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development and Implementation, Section 3.4: End-user Computing

Answer: D
Explanation: The finding that should be of greatest concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with end-user computing (EUC) in an organization is the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications. EUC applications are applications that are developed and maintained by end-users, rather than by IT professionals, to support their business functions and processes. Examples of EUC applications include spreadsheets, databases, reports, and scripts. The lack of defined criteria for EUC applications means that the organization does not have clear and consistent standards or guidelines to identify, classify, and manage EUC applications. This can lead to various risks, such as:
Inaccurate or unreliable data and results from EUC applications that are not validated, verified, or tested
Unauthorized or inappropriate access or use of EUC applications that are not secured, controlled, or monitored Inconsistent or incompatible data and results from EUC applications that are not integrated, documented, or updated Loss or corruption of data and results from EUC applications that are not backed up, recovered, or archived
Therefore, the IS auditor should be most concerned about the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications, as it can affect the quality, integrity, and availability of the EUC applications and the data they produce.
Insufficient processes to track ownership of each EUC application is a finding that should be of concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with EUC in an organization, but it is not the greatest concern. The ownership of an EUC application refers to the person or group who is responsible for creating, maintaining, and using the EUC application. Insufficient processes to track ownership of each EUC application means that the organization does not have adequate mechanisms orrecords to identify and communicate who owns each EUC application. This can lead to risks, such as: Lack of accountability or ownership for the quality and accuracy of the EUC application and its data
Lack of support or maintenance for the EUC application when the owner leaves or changes roles
Lack of awareness or training for the users of the EUC application on its purpose and functionality
However, these risks are less severe than those caused by the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications.
Insufficient processes to test for version control is a finding that should be of concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with EUC in an organization, but it is not the greatest concern. Version control is a process that tracks and manages the changes made to an EUC application over time. Insufficient processes to test for version control means that the organization does not have adequate procedures or tools to ensure that the changes made to an EUC application are authorized, documented, and tested. This can lead to risks, such as:
Errors or inconsistencies in the data and results from different versions of the EUC application
Conflicts or confusion among the users of the EUC application on which version is current or correct
Loss or overwrite of data and results from previous versions of the EUC application
However, these risks are less severe than those caused by the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications.
Lack of awareness training for EUC users is a finding that should be of concern to an IS auditor assessing the risk associated with EUC in an organization, but it is not the greatest concern. Awareness training for EUC users is a process that educates and informs the users of the EUC applications on their roles, responsibilities, and risks. Lack of awareness training for EUC users means that the organization does not have adequate programs or materials to raise the knowledge and skills of the users on how to use and manage the EUC applications effectively and securely. This can lead to risks, such as:
Misuse or abuse of the EUC applications by users who are not aware of their impact or implications
Non-compliance or violation of policies or regulations by users who are not aware of their requirements or expectations Dissatisfaction or frustration among users who are not aware of their benefits or limitations
However, these risks are less severe than those caused by the lack of defined criteria for EUC applications.
References:
End-user computing - Wikipedia 1
How to Manage the Risks Associated with End User Computing 2
Managing end user computing risks - KPMG UK 3

Answer: C
Explanation: The management decision that presents the greatest risk associated with data leakage is not providing security awareness training to staff. This is because staff are often the weakest link in the information security chain, and they may unintentionally or maliciously leak sensitive data through various channels, such as email, social media, cloud storage, or removable media. Security awareness training is essential to educate staff on the importance of protecting data, the policies and procedures for handling data, and the best practices for preventing and reporting data leakage incidents. Not requiring desktops to be encrypted, allowing staff to work remotely, and not updating security policies in the past year are also management decisions that may increase the risk of data leakage, but they are not as significant as not providing security awareness training to staff. Encryption, remote work, and security policies are technical or administrative controls that can be implemented or enforced by management, but they cannot fully prevent or mitigate human errors or malicious actions by staff. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Privacy Principles and Program Management Guide]

Answer: A
Explanation: A database conflict occurs when the same data is modified at two separate servers, such as a customer database and a remote call center database, and the changes are not consistent with each other. For example, if a customer updates their phone number at the customer database, and a call center agent updates the same customer’s address at the remote call center database, there is a conflict between the two updates. Database conflicts can cause data inconsistency, corruption, or loss if they are not detected and resolved properly.
Two-way replication is a process of synchronizing data between two databases, so that any changes made in one database are reflected in the other database, and vice versa. Twoway replication can improve data availability, performance, and scalability, but it also increases the risk of database conflicts. Therefore, when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center, the IS auditor should ensure that database conflicts are managed during replication. This means that the project should have a clear and effective strategy for:
Preventing or minimizing database conflicts by using techniques such as locking, timestamping, or partitioning. Detecting or identifying database conflicts by using tools such as triggers, logs, or alerts.
Resolving or handling database conflicts by using methods such as priority-based, rule-based, or user-based resolution.
The other possible options are:
B. end users are trained in the replication process: This is not a relevant or important factor for the IS auditor to ensure when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center. End users are not directly involved in the replication process, and they do not need to have detailed knowledge or skills about how replication works. The replication process should be transparent and seamless to the end users, and they should only interact with the data through their applications or interfaces.
C. the source database is backed up on both sites: This is not a sufficient or necessary factor for the IS auditor to ensure when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center. Backing up the source database on both sites can provide some level of data protection and recovery, but it does not address the issue of database conflicts that can occur during replication. Moreover, backing up the source database on both sites may not be feasible or efficient, as it may consume more storage space and network bandwidth, and introduce more complexity and overhead to the replication process.
D. user rights are identical on both databases: This is not a critical or relevant factor for the IS auditor to ensure when assessing a proposed project for the two-way replication of a customer database with a remote call center. User rights are the permissions or privileges that users have to access or modify data in a database. User rights do not directly affect the occurrence or resolution of database conflicts during replication. User rights may vary depending on the role or function of the users in different databases, and they should be defined and enforced according to the security policies and requirements of each database.

Answer: B
Explanation: The most important thing to determine when conducting a post-implementation review is whether success criteria have been achieved. A post-implementation review is a process of evaluating the results and outcomes of a project or initiative after it has been completed and implemented. The success criteria are the measurable indicators that define what constitutes a successful project or initiative in terms of its objectives, benefits, quality, performance, and stakeholder satisfaction. The IS auditor should verify whether the success criteria have been achieved by comparing the actual results and outcomes with the expected or planned ones, and by assessing whether they meet or exceed the expectations and requirements of the stakeholders. The IS auditor should also identify any gaps, issues, or risks that may affect the sustainability or scalability of the project or initiative, and provide recommendations for improvement or remediation. The other options are not as important as determining whether success criteria have been achieved when conducting a post-implementation review, because they either focus on specific aspects or components of the project or initiative rather than theoverall value proposition, or they are part of the pre-implementation or implementation phases rather than the postimplementation phase. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3

Answer: A
Explanation: The answer A is correct because user activity monitoring is the most effective control to mitigate against the risk of inappropriate activity by employees. User activity monitoring (UAM) is the process of tracking and recording the actions and behaviors of users on devices, networks, or applications that belong to an organization. UAM can help to prevent, detect, and respond to insider threats, such as data theft, fraud, sabotage, or misuse of resources. UAM can also help to enforce policies, ensure compliance, and improve productivity and performance.
Some of the benefits of UAM are:
Prevention: UAM can deter employees from engaging in inappropriate activity by making them aware that their actions are monitored and recorded. UAM can also prevent unauthorized access or use of sensitive data or resources by implementing access controls, encryption, or alerts.
Detection: UAM can detect any anomalies, deviations, or violations in user activity by analyzing the data collected from various sources, such as logs, keystrokes, screenshots, or video recordings. UAM can also use artificial intelligence or machine learning to identify patterns, trends, or risks in user behavior.
Response: UAM can respond to any incidents or issues related to user activity by notifying the relevant stakeholders, such as managers, security teams, or auditors. UAM can also provide evidence or proof of user activity for investigation or remediation purposes.
Some examples of UAM tools are:
Teramind: Teramind is a cloud-based UAM platform that offers features such as user behavior analytics, risk scoring, policy enforcement, data loss prevention, and productivity optimization.
Digital Guardian: Digital Guardian is a data protection platform that offers UAM capabilities such as endpoint detection and response, data classification and tagging, and threat hunting and incident response.
XPLG: XPLG is a log management and analysis platform that offers UAM features such as log aggregation and correlation, user behavior profiling and anomaly detection, and real-time alerts and dashboards.
The other options are not as effective as option A. Two-factor authentication (option B) is a security mechanism that requires users to provide two pieces of evidence to verify their identity before accessing a system or resource. Two-factor authentication can enhance the security and privacy of user accounts, but it does not monitor or record the user activity after the authentication. Network segmentation (option C) is a technique that divides a network into smaller subnetworks based on criteria such as function, location, or security level. Network segmentation can improve the performance, security, and manageability of a network by reducing congestion, isolating threats, and enforcing policies. However, network segmentation does not track or record the user activity within each segment of the network. Access recertification (option D) is a process that verifies and validates the access rights of users to systems or resources periodically or on-demand. Access recertification can ensure that users have the appropriate level of access based on their roles and responsibilities, but it does not monitor or record the user activity with the access rights.
References:

[User Activity Monitoring: Examples and Best Practices | SEON]
Top 10 user activity monitoring tools: software features and tracking price - Dashly blog
Whatis User Activity Monitoring? How It Works, Benefits, Best Practices and More - Digital Guardian
What Is User Activity Monitoring? Learn the What, Why, and How - XPLG

Answer: A
Explanation: The charging method for IS resources is the way that the IS function allocates its costs to the users or business units that consume its services. The charging method can affect the behavior and incentives of the users and the IS function, as well as the efficiency and effectiveness of the IS resources. Therefore, choosing an appropriate charging method is an important decision for the IS function and its stakeholders.
One of the possible charging methods is to charge specific costs that can be tied back to specific usage. This means that the IS function tracks and measures the actual consumption of each user or business unit for each IS service, and charges them accordingly. For example, if a user uses 10 GB of storage space, 5 hours of CPU time, and 100 MB of network bandwidth, the IS function will charge them based on the unit costs of these resources. This charging method has the advantage of encouraging the most efficient use of IS resources, as it provides clear and accurate feedback to the users about their consumption and costs, and motivates them to optimize their usage and avoid waste or overuse. This charging method also aligns the interests of the IS function and the users, as both parties benefit from reducing costs and improving efficiency.
The other possible charging methods are:
Total utilization to achieve full operating capacity: This means that the IS function charges a fixed amount to each user or business unit based on their proportion of the total operating capacity of the IS resources. For example, if a user or business unit has 10% of the total computing power allocated to them, they will pay 10% of the total IS costs. This charging method has the disadvantage of discouraging efficient use of IS resources, as it does not reflect the actual consumption or usage of each user or business unit, and does not provide any incentive to reduce costs or improve efficiency. This charging method also creates a mismatch between the interests of the IS function and the users, as the IS function benefits from increasing costs and capacity, while the users bear the burden of paying for them. Residual income in excess of actual incurred costs: This means that the IS function charges a markup or profit margin on top of its actual incurred costs to each user or business unit.For example, if a user or business unit consumes $100 worth of IS resources, the IS function will charge them $120, where $20 is the residual income for the IS function. This charging method has the disadvantage of discouraging efficient use of IS resources, as it increases the costs for the users and reduces their value for money. This charging method also creates a conflict between the interests of the IS function and the users, as the IS function benefits from increasing costs and profits, while the users suffer from paying more than they should.
Allocations based on the ability to absorb charges: This means that the IS function charges different amounts to different users or business units based on their ability to pay or their profitability. For example, if a user or business unit is more profitable or has a higher budget than another user or business unit, they will pay more for the same amount of IS resources. This charging method has the disadvantage of discouraging efficient use of IS resources, as it does not reflect the actual consumption or usage of each user or business unit, and does not provide any incentive to reduce costs or improve efficiency. This charging method also creates an unfair and arbitrary distribution of costs among the users or business units, as some paymore than others for no valid reason. References: 1: Charging Methods for IT Services - IT Process Wiki 2: IT Chargeback Methods - CIO Wiki 3: IT Chargeback - Wikipedia

Answer: B
Explanation: The advantage of using agile software development methodology over the waterfall methodology is that it allows for quicker deliverables. Agile software development is an iterative and incremental approach that emphasizes customer feedback, collaboration, and adaptation. Agile software development delivers working software in short cycles, called sprints, that typically last from two to four weeks. This enables the development team to respond to changing requirements, deliver value faster, and improve quality. Waterfall software development is a linear and sequential approach that follows a predefined set of phases, such as planning, analysis, design, implementation, testing, and maintenance. Waterfall software development requires a clear and stable definition of the project scope, deliverables, and expectations before starting the development process. Waterfall software development can be slow, rigid, and costly, especially if changes occur during the later stages of the project. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3: Information Systems Acquisition, Development & Implementation, Section 3.1: Project Management Practices

Answer: B
Explanation: The best phase of the software development life cycle to initiate the discussion of application controls is the application design phase when process functionalities are finalized. Application controls are the policies, procedures, and techniques that ensure the completeness, accuracy, validity, and authorization of data input, processing, output, and storage in an application. Application controls help prevent, detect, or correct errors and fraud in software applications. Examples of application controls include input validation, edit checks, reconciliation, encryption, access control, audit trails, etc.
The application design phase is when the software requirements are translated into a logical and physical design that specifies how the application will look and work. This phase is the best time to discuss application controls because it allows the developers to incorporate them into the design specifications and ensure that they are aligned with the business objectives and user needs. By discussing application controls early in the design phase, the developers can also avoid costly rework or changes later in the development process.
The other phases are not as optimal as the application design phase to initiate the discussion of application controls. A. Business case development phase when stakeholders are identified. The business case development phase is when the feasibility, scope, objectives, benefits, risks, and costs of a software project are defined and evaluated. This phase is important for obtaining stakeholder approval and support for the project, but it is too early to discuss application controls in detail because the software requirements and functionalities are not yet clear or finalized. B. User acceptance testing (UAT) phase when test scenarios are designed. The user acceptance testing phase is when the software is tested by the end-users or stakeholders to verify that it meets their expectations and requirements. This phase is too late to discuss application controls because it is near the end of the development process and any changes or additions to the application controls would require retesting and revalidation of the software. C. Application coding phase when algorithms are developed to solve business problems. The application coding phase is when the software design is translated into executable code using programming languages and tools. This phase is not ideal to discuss application controls because it is after the design phase and any changes or additions to the application controls would require redesigning and recoding of the software.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 2471
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription2
What Is Application Control? | McAfee3
What Is Application Lifecycle Management? | Red Hat4

Answer: B
Explanation: The best criteria for monitoring an IT vendor’s service levels are the performance metrics, as they provide quantifiable and measurable indicators of how well the vendor is delivering the agreed-upon services, such as availability, reliability, quality, timeliness, and customer satisfaction. A service auditor’s report is a document that provides an independent opinion on the vendor’s controls and processes, but it may not reflect the actual service levels or performance. A surprise visit to the vendor may help to verify the vendor’s compliance and operations, but it may not be feasible or effective for monitoring the service levels on a regular basis. An interview with the vendor may help to obtain feedback and insights from the vendor’s perspective, but it may not be objective or reliable formonitoring the service levels. References: CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governanceand Management of IT, Section 2.4: IT Service Delivery and Support

Answer: A
Explanation: Whenclassifying information, it is most important to align the classification to business risk, because it ensures that the information is protected according to its value andimpact to the organization34. Business risk considers factors such as legal, regulatory, contractual, operational, reputational, and financial implications of information disclosure or compromise34. Aligning information classification to business risk also helps to prioritize and allocate resources for information security measures. Security policy, data retention requirements, and industry standards are important considerations for information classification, but not as important as business risk. References: 3: CISA Review Manual(Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.4.2 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 5, Lesson 4

Answer: A
Explanation: The best way to reduce the risk of inaccurate or misleading data proliferating through business intelligence systems is to establish rules for converting data from one format to another, because this ensures that the data quality and integrity are maintained throughout the data transformation process. Data conversion rules define the standards, procedures, and methods for transforming data from different sources and formats into a common format andstructure that can be used by the business intelligence
systems12. Implementing data entry controlsfor new and existing applications, implementing a consistent database indexing strategy, and developing a metadata repository to store and access metadata are not the best ways to reduce the risk of inaccurate or misleading dataproliferating through business intelligence systems, becausethey do not address the issue of dataconversion, which is a critical step in the data integration process for business intelligence systems. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.3.3 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 4, Lesson 3

Answer: A
Explanation: The primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image during an operating system audit is to identify atypical running processes. A baseline image is a snapshot of the normal state and configuration of an operating system, including the processes that are expected to run on it. By comparing the current state of the operating system with the baseline image, an IS auditor can detect any deviations or anomalies that may indicate unauthorized or malicious activity, such as malware infection, privilege escalation, or data exfiltration. A baseline image can also help an IS auditor to assess the performance and efficiency of the operating system, as well as its compliance with security standards and policies.
Verifying antivirus definitions (option B) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the baseline configuration. Antivirus definitions are the files that contain the signatures and rules for detecting and removing malware. An IS auditor may verify that the antivirus definitions are up to date and consistent across the operating system, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.
Identifying local administrator account access (option C) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the baseline configuration. Local administrator accounts are user accounts that have full control over the operating system and its resources. An IS auditor may identify and review the local administrator accounts to ensure that they are properly secured and authorized, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.
Verifying the integrity of operating system backups (option D) is not the primary purpose of obtaining a baseline image, although it may be a part of the backup process. Operating system backups are copies of the operating system data and settings that can be used to restore the system in case of failure or disaster. An IS auditor may verify that the operating system backups are complete, accurate, and accessible, but this does not require obtaining a baseline image.
References:: Linux security and system hardening checklist : CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA : CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide, 4th Edition : CISA - Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide [Book]

Answer: D
Explanation: The only thing that can be provided by asymmetric encryption is nonrepudiation. Nonrepudiation is the ability to prove that a message or transaction was originated or authorized by a specific party. Asymmetric encryption uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key is kept secret by the owner. If a message is encrypted with the sender’s private key, only the sender’s public key can decrypt it. This proves that the message was sent by the sender and not by anyone else. This is called digital signature and it provides nonrepudiation. Asymmetric encryption can also provide information privacy by encrypting a message with the receiver’s public key, so that only the receiver’s private key can decrypt it. However, information privacy can also be provided by symmetric encryption, which uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt messages. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.21 CISA Online Review Course, Domain 3, Module 2, Lesson 12 The only thing that can be provided by asymmetric encryption is nonrepudiation. Nonrepudiation is the ability to prove that a message or transaction was originated or authorized by a specific party. Asymmetric encryption uses a pair of keys: a public key and a private key. The public key can be shared with anyone, while the private key is kept secret by the owner. If a message is encrypted with the sender’s private key, only the sender’s public key can decrypt it. This proves that the message was sent by the sender and not by anyone else. This is called digital signature and it provides nonrepudiation. Asymmetric encryption can also provide information privacy by encrypting a message with the receiver’s public key, so that only the receiver’s private key can decrypt it. However, information privacy can also be provided by symmetric encryption, which uses a single key to encrypt and decrypt messages. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 3, Module 2, Lesson 12

Answer: D
Explanation: The best approach to determine whether IT service delivery is based on consistently effective processes is to evaluate key performance indicators (KPIs). KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. KPIs can help the IT governance body to monitor and assess the performance, quality, and efficiency of the IT service delivery processes. KPIs can also help to identify areas for improvement and benchmark against best practices or industry standards. References:

CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 1, Section 1.3.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 5, Module 2, Lesson 22

Answer: D
Explanation: Information security policies and procedures are the foundation of an organization’s information security program. They define the roles, responsibilities, rules, and standards for protecting information assets from unauthorized access, use, disclosure, modification, or destruction. The most important factor when developing information security policies and procedures is to align them with an information security framework that provides a comprehensive and consistent approach to managing information security risks. An information security framework can also help ensure compliance with relevant regulations, inclusion of mission and objectives, and consultation with security staff. However, these factors are secondary to alignment with an information security
framework. References: CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

Answer: A
Explanation: Information systems governance is the set of policies, processes, structures, and practices that ensure the alignment of IT with business objectives, the delivery of value from IT investments, the management of IT risks, and the optimization of IT resources1.
Information systems governance is a strategic and high-level function that covers the entire organization and its IT portfolio. Therefore, an IS auditor should review the aspects of information systems governance that are relevant to the organization’s vision, mission, goals, and strategies.
One of the aspects that an IS auditor should review when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization is the approval processes for new system implementations. This is because new system implementations are significant IT investments that require careful planning, analysis, design,development, testing, deployment, and evaluation to ensure that they meet the business requirements, deliver the expected benefits, comply with the relevant standards and regulations, and minimize the potential risks2. The approval processes fornew system implementations should involve the appropriate stakeholders, such as senior management, business owners, IT managers,project managers, users, and auditors, who have the authority and responsibility to approve or reject the proposed system implementations based on predefined criteria and metrics3. The approval processes for new system implementations should also be documented, transparent, consistent, and timely to ensure accountability and traceability4. Therefore, an IS auditor should review the approval processes for new system implementations to assess whether they are aligned with the information systems governance framework and objectives.
The other possible options are:
Procedures for adding a new user to the invoice processing system: This is an operational task that involves granting access rights and permissions to a specific user for a specific system based on the principle of least privilege. This is not a strategic or high-level function that falls under information systems governance. Therefore, an IS auditor should not review this aspect when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization.
Approval processes for updating the corporate website: This is a tactical task that involves making changes or enhancements to the content or design of the corporate website based on the business needs and feedback. This is not a strategic or high-level function that falls under information systems governance. Therefore, an IS auditor should not review this aspect when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization.
Procedures for regression testing system changes: This is a technical task that involves verifying that existing system functionalities are not adversely affected by new system changes or updates. This is not a strategic or high-level function that falls under information systems governance. Therefore, an IS auditor should not review this aspect when evaluating information systems governance for a large organization. References: 1: What is IT Governance? - Definition from Techopedia 2: System Implementation - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics 3: Project Approval Process - Project Management Knowledge 4: 5 Best Practices For A Successful Project Approval Process | Kissflow Project : Principle of Least Privilege (POLP) | Imperva : How to Update Your Website Content - 7 Step Guide | HostGator Blog : What Is Regression Testing? Definition & Best Practices | BrowserStack

Answer: B
Explanation: The auditor’s best recommendation prior to go-live is to conduct a mock conversion test. This is because a mock conversion test can help to verify the accuracy, completeness, and validity of the data conversion process. A mock conversion test can also help to identify and resolve any issues or errors before the actual conversion takes place. A mock conversion test can also provide assurance that the converted data meets the business requirements and expectations. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.3.21
CISAOnline Review Course, Domain 2, Module 2, Lesson 22

Answer: A
Explanation: Segregation of duties is a key internal control that aims to prevent fraud and errors by ensuring that no single individual has the authority to execute two or more conflicting sensitive transactions or functions. In the accounts payable vendor payment cycle, segregation of duties involves separating the tasks of vendor setup, procurement, invoice approval, and payment processing1. This way, an employee cannot create a fictitious vendor and issue a payment to themselves or their accomplices without being detected by another person. Therefore, the best way to prevent fraudulent payments is to implement segregation of duties between the vendorsetup and payment processing. References: 1: Segregation of Duties in the Accounts Payable Vendor Payment Cycle for SMBs - Now With a Podcast! - Debra R Richardson : What is Separation of duties - University of California, Berkeley

Answer: A
Explanation: The primary benefit of automating application testing is to provide test consistency. Automated testing can ensure that the same test cases are executed in the same manner and order every time, which can improve the reliability and accuracy of the test results. Providing more flexibility, replacing all manual test processes, and reducing the time to review code are possible benefits of automating application testing, but they are not the primary benefit. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, p. 3091
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: B
Explanation: The most helpful thing for an IS auditor when assessing the effectiveness of controls is the results of control testing, as this provides objective and reliable evidence of how well the controls are designed and operating in practice. A control self-assessment (CSA) is a technique that involves the participation of process owners and stakeholders in evaluating the effectiveness of controls, but it may not be as rigorous or independent as control testing. Interviews with management are useful for gaining an understanding of the control environment and culture, but they may not reflect the actual performance of controls. A control matrix is a tool that maps the controls to the objectives, risks, and requirements, but it does not measure the effectiveness of controls. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version),Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.3: IT Audit Process

Answer: A
Explanation: The first step to successfully implement a corporate data classification program is to approve a data classification policy. A data classification policy is a document that defines the objectives, scope, principles, roles, responsibilities, and procedures for classifying data based on its sensitivity and value to the organization. A data classification policy is essential for establishing a common understanding and a consistent approach for data classification across the organization, as well as for ensuring compliance with relevant regulatory and contractual requirements.
Selecting a data loss prevention (DLP) product (option B) is not the first step to implement a data classification program, as it is a technical solution that supports the enforcement of the data classification policy, not the definition of it. A DLP product can help prevent unauthorized access, use, or disclosure of sensitive data by monitoring, detecting, and blocking data flows that violate the data classification policy. However, before selecting a DLP product, the organization needs to have a clear and approved data classification policy that specifies the criteria and rules for data classification.
Confirming that adequate resources are available for the project (option C) is also not the first step to implement a data classification program, as it is a project management activity that ensures the feasibility and sustainability of the project, not the design of it. Confirming that adequate resources are available for the project involves estimating and securing the necessary budget, staff, time, and tools for implementing and maintaining the data classification program. However, before confirming that adequate resources are available for the project, the organization needs to have a clear and approved data classification policy that defines the scope and objectives of the project.
Checking for the required regulatory requirements (option D) is also not the first step to implement a data classification program, as it is an input to the development of the data classification policy, not an output of it. Checking for the required regulatory requirements involves identifying and analyzing the applicable laws, regulations, standards, and contracts that govern the protection and handling of sensitive data. However, checking for the required regulatory requirements is not enough to implement a data classification program; the organization also needs to have a clear and approved data classification policy that incorporates and complies with those requirements.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
References:

Data Classification: What It Is and How to Implement It
Create a well-designed data classification framework
7 Steps to Effective Data Classification | CDW
Data Classification: The Basics and a 6-Step Checklist - NetApp
Private and confidential February 2021 - Deloitte US

Answer: B
Explanation: The audit procedure that would have most likely identified the exception of critical servers not included in the central log repository is to compare a list of all servers from the directory server against a list of all servers present in the central log repository. This would allow the IS auditor to detect any discrepancies or omissions in the central log repository. The other audit procedures (A, C and D) would not be effective in identifying this exception, as they would only focus on the alerts generated, the alert settings configured, or the servers included in the previous year’s audit, which may not reflect the current state of the central log repository. References: IS Audit and Assurance Guideline 2202: Evidence Collection Techniques, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3: Logging and Monitoring

Answer: D
Explanation: The best way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse to ensure the organization’s information cannot be accessed is data wiping. Data wiping is a process that overwrites the data on the hard disk with random or meaningless patterns, making it unrecoverable by any software or hardware methods. Data wiping can provide a high level of security and assurance that the organization’s information is permanently erased from the hard disk, and that it cannot be accessed by unauthorized parties or malicious actors.
Re-partitioning is not a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but rather a way to organize the hard disk into different logical sections or volumes. Re-partitioning does not erase the data on the hard disk, but only changes the structure and allocation of the disk space. Re-partitioning may make the data inaccessible to the operating system, but not to other tools or methods that can scan or recover the data from the disk sectors.
Degaussing is a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but only for magnetic hard disks, not solid state drives (SSDs). Degaussing is a process that exposes the hard disk to a strong magnetic field, which disrupts and destroys the magnetic alignment of the data on the disk platters. Degaussing can effectively erase the data on magnetic hard disks, but it can also damage or render unusable the electronic components of the hard disk, such as the read/write heads or circuit boards. Degaussing also does not work on SSDs, which store data using flash memory cells, not magnetic media.
Formatting is not a way to sanitize a hard disk for reuse, but rather a way to prepare the hard disk for use by an operating system. Formatting is a process that creates a file system on the hard disk, which defines how the data is stored and accessed on the disk.
Formatting does not erase the dataon the hard disk, but only deletes the file system metadata and marks the disk space as available for new data. Formatting may make the data invisible to the operating system, but not to other tools or methods that can restore or recover the data from the disk sectors.
References:

How to Wipe A Hard Drive for Reuse? Check the Quickest Way to Wipe A Hard Drive - EaseUS 1
HP PCs - Using Secure Erase or HP Disk Sanitizer 2
HOW to QUICKLY and PERMANENTLY SANITIZE ANY DRIVE (SSD, USB thumb drive …)

Answer: A
Explanation: The answer A is correct because the greatest concern for an IS auditor when a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data is that controls to adequately safeguard the data may not be applied. Data classification is the process of categorizing data assets based on their information sensitivity and business impact. Data classification helps organizations to identify, protect, and manage their data according to their value and risk. Data owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and responsibility to define, classify, and control the access and use of their data.
Data classification typically involves assigning labels or tags to data assets, such as public, internal, confidential, or restricted. These labels indicate the level of protection and handling required for the data. Based on the data classification, organizations can implement appropriate controls to safeguard the data, such as encryption, access control lists, audit logs, backup policies, etc. These controls help to prevent unauthorized access, disclosure, modification, or loss of data, and to ensure compliance with relevant laws and regulations.
If a data owner assigns an incorrect classification level to data, it can result in either underprotection or overprotection of the data. Underprotection means that the data is classified at a lower level than it should be, which exposes it to higher risks of compromise or breach. For example, if a data owner classifies personal health information (PHI) as public instead of confidential, it may allow anyone to access or share the data without proper authorization or consent. This can violate the privacy rights of the data subjects and the compliance requirements of regulations such as HIPAA (Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act). Overprotection means that the data is classified at a higher level than it should be, which limits its availability or usability. For example, if a data owner classifies marketing materials as restricted instead of public, it may prevent potential customers or partners from accessing or viewing the data. This can reduce the business value and opportunities of the data.
Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned about the accuracy and consistency of data classification by data owners, as it affects the security and efficiency of data management. An IS auditor should review the policies and procedures for data classification, verify that the data owners have adequate knowledge and skills to classify their data, and test that the data classification labels match with the actual sensitivity and impact of the data.
References:

Data Classification: What It Is and How to Implement It
What Is Data Classification? - Definition, Levels & Examples …
Data Classification: A Guide for Data Security Leaders

Answer: C
Explanation: The best solution for ensuring secure remote access to corporate resources is to use a virtual private network (VPN), as this creates an encrypted tunnel between the user’s device and the corporate network, preventing unauthorized interception or modification of data in transit. Additional firewall rules may help to restrict access to certain ports or protocols, but they do not provide encryption or authentication. Multi-factor authentication may help to verify the identity of the user, but it does not protect the data in transit. Virtual desktop may help to provide a consistent user interface and access to applications, but it does not ensure the security of thecommunication channel. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5:Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.2: Network Security Devices and Technologies

Answer: D
Explanation: The primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system is to validate the new system against its predecessor. A parallel run is a strategy for system changeover where a new system slowly assumes the roles of the older system while both systems operate simultaneously. This allows for comparison of the results and outputs of both systems to ensure that the new system is working correctly and reliably. A parallel run can also help identify and resolve any errors, discrepancies, or inconsistencies in the new system before the old system is discontinued.
The other options are not the primary purpose of performing a parallel run of a new system. A. To train the end users and supporting staff on the new system. Training is an important part of system implementation, but it is not the main reason for doing a parallel run. Training can be done before, during, or after the parallel run, depending on the needs and preferences of the organization. B. To verify the new system provides required business functionality. Verifying the business functionality of the new system is part of user acceptance testing (UAT), which is a formal and structured process of testing whether the new system meets the specifications and expectations of the users and stakeholders. UAT is usually done before the parallel run, as a prerequisite for system changeover. C. To reduce the need for additional testing. Reducing the need for additional testing is not the primary purpose of performing a parallel run, but rather a possible benefit or outcome of doing so. A parallel run can help ensure that the new system is thoroughly tested and validated in a real-worldenvironment, which may reduce the likelihood of encountering major issues or defects later on. However, additional testing may still be needed after the parallel run, depending on the feedback and evaluation of the users and stakeholders.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 2471
IS

Answer: A
Explanation: The primary role of key performance indicators (KPIs) in supporting business process effectiveness is to enable conclusions about the performance of the processes and target variances for follow-up analysis. KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key objectives. KPIs can help to monitor and evaluate the performance, quality, and efficiency of the business processes. KPIs can also help to identify areas for improvement and benchmark against best practices or industry standards. KPIs can also provide feedback and guidance for decision making and corrective actions. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.3.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 5, Module 2, Lesson 22

Answer: B
Explanation: A recovery point objective (RPO) is the maximum acceptable amount of data loss after an unplanned data-loss incident, expressed as an amount of time. This is generally thought of as the point in time before the event at which data can be successfully recovered– that is, the time elapsed since the most recent reliable backup1. RPOs are important to consider when reviewing an organization’s defined data backup and restoration procedures, because they determine how frequently the organization needs to perform backups, and how much data it can afford to lose in case of a disaster. RPOs are usually defined based on the business impact and criticality of the data, as well as the compliance and regulatory requirements. For example, a financial institution may have a very low RPO (such as a few minutes or seconds) for its transactional data, while a research institute may have a higher RPO (such as a few hours or days) for its experimental data.
The other possible options are:
A. Business continuity plan (BCP): A BCP is a document that outlines how an organization will continue to operate or resume its critical functions and processes in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP includes various elements, such as risk assessment, business impact analysis, recovery strategies, roles and responsibilities, communication plan, and testing and maintenance. A BCP is related to an organization’s defined data backup and restoration procedures, but it is not the most important factor to consider when reviewing them. A BCP defines the recovery objectives and strategies for the entire organization, while the data backup and restoration procedures are more specific and technical in nature.
C. Mean time to restore (MTTR): MTTR is a metric that measures the average time it takes to restore a system or service after a failure or outage. MTTR is an indicator of the efficiency and effectiveness of an organization’s recovery process, as well as the availability and reliability of its systems or services. MTTR is related to an organization’s defined data backup and restoration procedures, but it is not the most important factor to consider when reviewing them. MTTR reflects the actual performance of the recovery process, while the data backup and restoration procedures define the expected steps and actions for the recovery process.
D. Mean time between failures (MTBF): MTBF is a metric that measures the average time between failures or outages of a system or service. MTBF is an indicator of the quality and durability of an organization’s systems or services, as well as their susceptibility to failures or outages. MTBF is related to an organization’s defined data backup and restoration procedures, but it is not the most important factor to consider when reviewing them. MTBF reflects the potential frequency of failures or outages, while the data backup and restoration procedures define the contingency plans for failures or outages.

Answer: A
Explanation: The primary benefit of using one-time passwords is that an intercepted password cannot be reused, as it is valid only for a single login session or transaction. One-time passwords enhance the security of authentication by preventing replay attacks or password guessing. The other options are not the primary benefits of using one-time passwords. Security for applications can be automated with or without one-time passwords. Users may still have to memorize complex passwords or use a device or software to generate one-time
passwords. Users can still be locked out of an account if they enter an incorrect or expired one-time password. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.1

Answer: C
Explanation: The first thing that an IS auditor should do when a follow-up audit reveals some management action plans have not been initiated is to escalate the lack of plan completion to executive management. This is because the failure to implement the agreed management action plans may indicate that the management is not taking the audit findings and recommendations seriously, or that they are accepting too much risk by not addressing the identified issues. Escalating the lack of plan completion to executive management can help to raise awareness and accountability, as well as to seek support and intervention to ensure that the management action plans are executed in a timely and effective manner12.
Confirming whether the identified risks are still valid is not the first thing to do, although it may be a useful step to reassess the current situation and the potential impact of not implementing the management action plans. However,confirming the validity of the risks does not address the root causeof why the management action plans have not been initiated, nor does it provide any assurance or remediation for the unresolved issues34. Providing a report to the audit committee is not the first thing to do, although it may be a necessary step to communicate and document the results of the follow-up audit. However, providing a report to the audit committee does not guarantee that the management action plans will be initiated, nor does it resolve any conflicts or challenges that may prevent the management from implementing them34.
Requesting an additional action plan review to confirm the findings is not the first thing to do, although it may be a prudent step to verify and validate the accuracy and completeness of the follow-up audit. However, requesting an additional review may delay or defer the implementation of the management action plans, as well as consume more internalaudit resources and time

Answer: C
Explanation: Social engineering is the manipulation of people to perform actions or divulge confidential information. It is a common technique used by attackers to gain unauthorized access to systems or data. Employees who use public social networking sites may be vulnerable to social engineering attacks, such as phishing, baiting, or pretexting, which pose the greatest risk to the organization’s security. The other options are not as serious as social engineering, as they relate to web application vulnerabilities, intellectual property rights, and reputation management, which are less likely to compromise the organization’s assets or operations. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.3 Security Awareness Training1

Answer: D
Explanation: The answer D is correct because the greatest concern for an IS auditor with the situation of business owners being removed from the project initiation phase is that the requirements may be incomplete. The project initiation phase is the first step in starting a new project, where the project’s purpose, scope, objectives, and deliverables are defined and documented. The project initiation phase also involves identifying and engaging the key stakeholders who have an interest or influence in the project, such as sponsors, customers, users, or business owners. Business owners are the individuals or entities who have the authority and responsibility to define the business needs and expectations for the project. They are also the primary beneficiaries of the project outcomes and benefits. Business owners play a crucial role in the project initiation phase, as they provide valuable input and feedback on the requirements and specifications of the project. Requirements are the statements that describe what the project should accomplish or deliver to meet the business needs and expectations. Requirements are essential for guiding the project planning, execution, monitoring, and closure phases.
If business owners are removed from the project initiation phase, it can result in incomplete or inaccurate requirements, which can have negative impacts on the project’s quality, scope, time, cost, and risk. Some of the possible consequences of incomplete requirements are:
Misalignment: The project may not align with the business strategy, vision, or goals, which can reduce its value or relevance.
Confusion: The project team may not have a clear understanding of what the project should achieve or deliver, which can affect their performance or productivity.
Rework: The project may need to undergo frequent changes or revisions to accommodate new or modified requirements, which can increase the time and cost of the project.
Dissatisfaction: The project may not meet the expectations or satisfaction of the business owners or other stakeholders, which can affect their acceptance or support of the project.
Failure: The project may not deliver the expected outcomes or benefits, which can affect its success or viability. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned about the involvement and participation of business owners in the project initiation phase, as it affects the completeness and quality of requirements. An IS auditor should review the policies and procedures for stakeholder identification and engagement, verify that the business owners have adequate knowledge and skills to define their requirements, and test that the requirements are well-defined, documented, approved, and communicated.
References:

Project Initiation: The First Step to Project Management [2023] • Asana
Everything you need to know about the project initiation phase
Project Initiation Phase - The Business Professor
Project Initiation: A Guide to Starting a Project Right Way - Kissflow

Answer: A

Explanation: A backlog consumption report is a report that shows the amount of work that has been completed and the amount of work that remains to be done in a project. It is a useful tool for measuring the progress and performance of a web-based customer service application development project, as it can indicate whether the project is on track, ahead or behind schedule, and how much effort is required to finish the project. A backlog consumption report can also help identify any issues or risks that may affect the project delivery. Critical path analysis reports, developer status reports and change management logs are also helpful for evaluating a project, but they are not as helpful as a backlog consumption report, as they do not provide a clear picture of the overall project status and completion rate. References:

: [Backlog Consumption Report Definition]
: Backlog Consumption Report | ISACA

Answer: B
Explanation: A concern associated with virtualization is that performance issues with the host could impact the guest operating systems, which are the operating systems that run on virtual machines within the host. For example, if the host has insufficient memory, CPU, disk space, or network bandwidth, it could affect the performance and availability of the guest operating systems and the applications running on them. The physical footprint of servers could decrease within the datacenter, processingcapacity may be shared across multiple operating systems, and one host may have multiple versions of the same operating system are not concerns associated with virtualization, but rather benefits or features of virtualization that can help reduce costs, improve efficiency, and enhance
flexibility. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2: IT Service Delivery and Support

Answer: C
Explanation: The most appropriate population to sample from when testing for remediation of findings identified in an organization’s user provisioning process is all users provisioned after the final audit report was issued. This is because the final audit report is the official document that communicates the audit findings, recommendations, and action plans to the management and other stakeholders. It also establishes a baseline for measuring the progress and effectiveness of the remediation efforts. Therefore, sampling from the users provisioned after the final audit report was issued would provide the most relevant and reliable evidence of whether the audit issues have been resolved or not.
The other options are not as appropriate as option C, as they may not reflect the actual status of the remediation efforts. All users provisioned after the finding was originally identified may include users who were provisioned before the final audit report was issued, which may not capture the full impact of the remediation actions. All users provisioned after management resolved the audit issue may not be accurate, as management’s resolution may not be verified or validated by an independent party. All users who have followed user provisioning processes provided by management may not be representative, as there may be exceptions or deviations from the processes that could affect the remediation results.
References:

6: What Is User Provisioning? Definition, Process and Best Practices - Spiceworks
7: What Is User Provisioning? All You Need to Know in One Place - G2
8: What is User Account Provisioning? - Tools4ever
9: What Is Provisioning and Deprovisioning? | Okta

Answer: B
Explanation: The auditor should be most concerned with the impact AI will have on enterprise architecture (EA) when reviewing a project to replace multiple manual data entry systems with an AI system. EA is a comprehensive framework that defines the structure, components, relationships, and principles of an organization’s IT environment. EA can help to align the IT strategy with the business strategy and ensure the coherence, consistency, and integration of the IT systems and services. Replacing manual data entry systems with an AI system may have significant implications for the EA, such aschanging the business processes, data flows, security requirements, performance standards, or governance models. The auditor should assess whether the project has considered the impact of AI on EA and whether the EA has been updated accordingly. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.41
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 5, Module 1, Lesson 22

Answer: D
Explanation: The primary advantage of this approach is that it improves audit efficiency. Audit efficiency is the measure of how well the audit resources are used to achieve the audit objectives. Audit efficiency can be enhanced by using methods or techniques that can save time, cost, or effort without compromising the quality or scope of the audit. By requesting direct access to data required to perform audit procedures instead of asking management to provide the data, the auditor can reduce the dependency on management’s cooperation, availability, or timeliness. The auditor can also avoid potential delays, errors, or biases that may occur when management provides the data. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.41
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 1, Lesson 42

Answer: D
Explanation: Leveraging an IT governance framework is the best way to enable alignment of IT with business objectives, as it provides a set of principles, standards, processes, and practices that guide the effective delivery of IT services that support the organization’s strategy and goals. Benchmarking against peer organizations, developing key performance indicators (KPIs), and completing an IT risk assessment are useful activities that can help measure and improve the performance and value of IT, but they are not sufficient to ensure alignment without a governance framework. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: Information Systems Auditing Process, Section 1.2: IT Governance

Answer: C
Explanation: The best approach for determining the overall IT risk appetite of an organization when business units use different methods for managing IT risks is to prioritize the organization’s IT risk scenarios. IT risk appetite is the amount and type of IT risk that an organization is willing to accept in pursuit of its objectives. IT risk scenarios are hypothetical situations that describe the potential impact of IT risk events on the organization’s objectives, processes, and resources. By prioritizing the organization’s IT risk scenarios, the IS auditor can identify the most significant IT risks that affect the organization as a whole, and align them with the organization’s strategic goals, values, and culture. Prioritizing the organization’s IT risk scenarios can also help to communicate and monitor the IT risk appetite across the organization, and facilitate consistent and informed decision making. The other approaches (A, B and D) are not effective for determining the overall IT risk appetite of an organization, as they do not consider the impact and likelihood of IT risks on the organization’s objectives, nor do they account for the diversity and complexity of IT risks across different business units. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of Information Technology, Section 2.3: Information Technology Risk Management

Answer: D
Explanation: A computer forensic audit is a process of collecting, preserving, analyzing, and presenting digital evidence from electronic devices in a legally admissible manner. It is most relevant in situations where data loss due to hacking of servers occurs, as it can help to identify the source, method, and extent of the attack, as well as recover the lost or damaged data. The other options are not as suitable for a computer forensic audit, as they relate to internal control issues, data quality issues, orsystem maintenance issues, which can be addressed by other types of audits or reviews. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Domain 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.5 Computer Forensics1

Answer: C
Explanation: An IT service desk is a function that provides technical support and assistance to the users of an organization’s IT systems and services. An IT service desk typically handles issues such as software installation, hardware troubleshooting, network connectivity, password reset, system configuration,and user training. An IT service desk aims to ensure that the IT systems and services are available, reliable, secure, and efficient for the users.
One of the best indications that there are potential problems within an organization’s IT service desk function is an excessive backlog of user requests. A backlog is a list of user requests that have not been resolved or completed by the IT service desk within a specified time frame. An excessive backlog means that the IT service desk is unable to meet the demand or expectations of the users, and that the users are experiencing delays, dissatisfaction, or frustration with the IT service desk.
An excessive backlog of user requests can indicate various problems within the IT service desk function, such as: Insufficient staff, resources, or capacity to handle the volume or complexity of user requests
Ineffective processes, procedures, or tools for managing, prioritizing, or resolving user requests
Lack of skills, knowledge, or training among the IT service desk staff to deal with different types of user requests
Poor communication, collaboration, or coordination among the IT service desk staff or with other IT functions or stakeholders
Low quality, performance, or security of the IT systems or services that cause frequent or recurring user issues Therefore, an excessive backlog of user requests is the best indication that there are potential problems within an organization’s IT service desk function.
References:

What is an IT Service Desk? Definition and Functions - Indeed
The Most Common IT Help Desk Issues - SherpaDesk
18 Common IT Help Desk Problems and Solutions - E-Pulse Blog

Answer: D
Explanation: Data classification is the process of organizing and labeling data into categories based on file type, contents, and other metadata. Data classification helps organizations answer important questions about their data that inform how they mitigate risk and manage data governance policies. Data classification also enables appropriate protection measures, and efficient search, retrieval and use of each data category12. While evaluating the data classification process of an organization, an IS auditor’s primary focus should be on whether data is correctly classified. This means that the data is assigned to the appropriate classification level based on its sensitivity, importance, integrity, availability, compliance requirements, and business value. Correct data classification ensures that the data is protected according to its risk level, and that the organization can comply with relevant laws and regulations that apply to different types of data3.
The other three options are not the primary focus of an IS auditor while evaluating the data classification process, although they may be relevant or useful for certain aspects of data management. Data classifications are automated means that the organization uses software tools or algorithms to analyze and label data based on predefined rules or criteria. This can improve the efficiency and consistency of data classification, but it does not guarantee that the data is correctly classified. The IS auditor still needs to verify the accuracy and validity of the automated classifications, and check for any errors or anomalies.
A data dictionary is maintained means that the organization keeps a record of the definitions, formats, sources, and relationships of the data elements in its systems or databases. This can enhance the understanding and usability of the data, but it does not ensure that the data is correctly classified. The IS auditor still needs to examine the content and context of the data, and compare it with the classification criteria and policies.
Data retention requirements are clearly defined means that the organization specifies how long it will keep different types of data, and when it will delete or archive them. This can help reduce storage costs, improve performance, and comply with legal obligations, but it does not ensure that the data is correctly classified. The IS auditor still needs to assess whether the data is stored and protected according to its classification level, and whether the retention periods are appropriate for each type of data.
Therefore, data is correctly classified is the best answer.
References:

Data Classification: The Basics and a 6-Step Checklist - NetApp
What is Data Classification? Guidelines and Process -Varonis
Data Classification and Handling Procedures Guide

Answer: C
Explanation: The most useful information regarding an organization’s risk appetite and tolerance is provided by its risk profile, as this is a document that summarizes the key risks that the organization faces, the potential impacts and likelihoods of those risks, and the acceptable levels of risk exposure for different objectives and activities. A gap analysis is a tool that compares the current state and the desired state of a process or a system, and identifies the gaps that need to be addressed. Audit reports are documents that present the findings, conclusions, and recommendations of an audit engagement. A risk register is a tool that records and tracks the identified risks, their causes, their consequences,and their mitigation actions. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.1: IT Governance

Answer: C
Explanation: The best recommendation to prevent unauthorized access to a highly sensitive data center by piggybacking or tailgating is to use an airlock entrance. An airlock entrance is a type of access control system that consists of two doors that are interlocked, so that only one door can be opened at a time. This prevents an unauthorized person from following an authorized person into the data center without being detected. An airlock entrance can also be integrated with other security measures, such as biometrics, card readers, or PIN pads, to verify the identity and authorization of each person entering the data center.
Biometrics (option A) is a method of verifying the identity of a person based on their physical or behavioral characteristics, such as fingerprints, iris scans, or voice recognition. Biometrics can provide a high level of security, but they are not sufficient to prevent piggybacking or tailgating, as an unauthorized person can still follow an authorized person who has been authenticated by the biometric system.
Procedures for escorting visitors (option B) is a policy that requires all visitors to the data center to be accompanied by an authorized employee at all times. This can help prevent unauthorized access by visitors, but it does not address the risk of piggybacking or tailgating by other employees or contractors who may have legitimate access to the building but not to the data center. Intruder alarms (option D) are devices that detect and alert when an unauthorized person enters a restricted area. Intruder alarms can provide a deterrent and a response mechanism for unauthorized access, but they are not effective in preventing piggybacking or tailgating, as they rely on the detection of the intruder after they have already entered the data center.
References: 1: CISA Certification | Certified Information Systems Auditor | ISACA 2: CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide, 4th Edition 3: CISA - Certified Information Systems Auditor Study Guide [Book]

Answer: A
Explanation: The planning phase is the stage of the internal audit process where contact is established with the individuals responsible for the business processes in scope for review. The planning phase involves defining the objectives, scope, and criteria of the audit, as well as identifying the key risks and controls related to the audited area. The planning phase also involves communicating with the auditee to obtain relevant information, documents, and data, as well as to schedule interviews, walkthroughs, and meetings. The planning phase aims to ensure that the audit team has a clear understanding of the audited area and its context, and that the audit plan is aligned with the expectations and needs of the auditee and other stakeholders.
The execution phase is the stage of the internal audit process where the audit team performs the audit procedures according to the audit plan. The execution phase involves testing the design and operating effectiveness of the controls, collecting and analyzing evidence, documenting the audit work and results, and identifying any issues or findings. The execution phase aims to provide sufficient and appropriate evidence to support the audit conclusions and recommendations.
The follow-up phase is the stage of the internal audit process where the audit team monitors and verifies the implementation of the corrective actions agreed upon by the auditee in response to the audit findings. The follow-up phase involves reviewing the evidence provided by the auditee, conducting additional tests or interviews if necessary, and evaluating whether the corrective actions have adequately addressed the root causes of the findings. The follow-up phase aims to ensure that the auditee has taken timely and effective actions to improve its processes and controls. The selection phase is not a standard stage of the internal audit process, but it may refer to the process of selecting which areas or functions to audit based on a risk assessment or an annual audit plan. The selection phase involves evaluating the inherent and residual risks of each potential auditable area, considering the impact, likelihood, and frequency of those risks, as well as other factors such as regulatory requirements, stakeholder expectations, previous audit results, and available resources. The selection phase aims to prioritize and allocate the audit resources to those areas that present the highest risks or opportunities for improvement.
Therefore, option A is the correct answer.
References:
Stages and phases of internal audit - piranirisk.com
Step-by-Step Internal Audit Checklist | AuditBoard
AuditProcess | The Office of Internal Audit - University of Oregon

Answer: A
Explanation: An audit report of the controls by the service provider’s external auditor provides the best evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective. An external auditor is an independent and objective party that can assess the design and operating effectiveness of the service provider’s information security controls based on established standards and criteria. An external auditor can also provide an opinion on the adequacy and compliance of the service provider’s information security controls, as well as recommendations for improvement.
Documentation of the service provider’s security configuration controls is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. Documentation of the security configuration controls can show the settings and parameters of the service provider’s information systems and networks, but it may not reflect the actual implementation and operation of the controls. Documentation of the security configuration controls may also be outdated, incomplete, or inaccurate.
An interview with the service provider’s information security officer is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. An interview with the information security officer can provide insights into the service provider’s information security strategy, policies, and procedures, but it may not verify the actual performance and compliance of the information security controls. An interview with the information security officer may also be biased, subjective, or misleading. A review of the service provider’s policies and procedures is a source of evidence that a third-party service provider’s information security controls are effective, but it is not the best evidence. A review of the policies and procedures can show the service provider’s information security objectives, requirements, and guidelines, but it may not demonstrate the actual execution and enforcement of the information security controls. A review of the policies and procedures may also be insufficient, inconsistent, or outdated. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 284
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: D
Explanation: The most useful analytical method when trying to identify groups with similar behavior or characteristics in a large population is classification. Classification is a technique that assigns data points to predefined categories or classes based on their features or attributes. Classification can help to discover patterns, trends, and relationships among the data and reveal the similarities or differences among the groups. Classification can also help to support decision making, prediction, or recommendation based on the data analysis. References:

CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 3, Section 3.4.21
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 2, Module 3, Lesson 12

Answer: A
Explanation: Imaging the affected system is the best way to protect evidence in a forensic investigation, because it creates a bit-by-bit copy of the original data that can be analyzed without altering or compromising the original source. Imaging preserves the integrity and authenticity of the evidence and allows for verification and validation of the results34. Powering down or rebooting the affected system can cause data loss or corruption, while protecting the hardware does not prevent unauthorized access or tampering with the software or data. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 6, Section 6.4.1 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 6, Lesson 4

Answer: D
Explanation: Monetary unit sampling (MUS) is a statistical sampling method that is used to determine if the account balances or monetary amounts in a population contain any misstatements. MUS treats each individual dollar in the population as a separate sampling unit, so that larger balances or amounts have a higher probability of being selected than smaller ones. MUS then projects the results of testing the sample to the entire population in terms of dollar values, rather than error rates.
One advantage of MUS is that it increases the likelihood of selecting material items from the population. Material items are those that have a significant impact on the financial statements and could influence the decisions of users. By giving more weight to larger items, MUS ensures that material misstatements are more likely to be detected and reported. MUS also reduces the sample size required to achieve a desired level of confidence and precision, as compared to other sampling methods that do not consider the value of items.
References:

4: Monetary unit sampling definition — AccountingTools
5: How Does Monetary Unit Sampling Work? - dummies
6: Audit sampling | ACCA Qualification | Students | ACCA Global

Answer: B
Explanation: The most important thing for an IS auditor to verify when evaluating an organization’s data conversion and infrastructure migration plan is that a rollback plan is included. A rollback plan is a contingency plan that describes the steps and actions to be taken in case the data conversion or infrastructure migration fails or causes unacceptable problems or risks. A rollback plan can help to restore the original data and infrastructure, minimize the impact on the business operations and functions, and ensure the continuity and availability of the IT services. The IS auditor should verify that the rollback plan is feasible, tested, documented, and approved, and that it covers all the possible scenarios and outcomes of the data conversion or infrastructure migration. Theother options are not as important as verifying the rollback plan, because they either do not address the potential failure or disruption of the data conversion or infrastructure migration, or they are partof the normal planning and execution process rather than a contingency plan. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3

Answer: A
Explanation: Regression testing is the most appropriate testing method for assessing whether system integrity has been maintained after changes have been made. Regression testing is a type of software testing that ensures that previously developed and tested software still performs as expected after a change1 Regression testing helps to detectany defects or errors that may have been introduced or uncovered due to the change2 Regression testing can be performed at different levels of testing, such as unit, integration, system, and acceptance3
Unit testing is a type of software testing that verifies the functionality of individual components or units of code. Unit testing is usually performed by developers before integrating the code with other components. Unit testing helps to identify and fix errors at an early stage of development, but it does not ensure that the system as a whole works as expected after a change. Integration testing is a type of software testing that verifies the functionality, performance, and reliability of the interactions between different components or units of code. Integration testing is usually performed after unit testing and before system testing. Integration testing helps to identify and fix errors that may occur when different components are integrated, but it does not ensure that the system as a whole works as expected after a change.
Acceptance testing is a type of software testing that verifies whether the system meets the user requirements and expectations. Acceptance testing is usually performed by end-users or customersafter system testing and before deploying the system to production. Acceptance testing helps to ensure that the system delivers the desired value and quality to the users, but it does not ensure that the system as a whole works as expected after a change.
References: 1: What is Regression Testing? Test Cases (Example) - Guru99 2: What is Regression Testing? Definition, Tools, Examples - Katalon 3: Regression testing - Wikipedia : What is Unit Testing? Definition, Types, Tools & Examples - Guru99 : What is Integration Testing? Definition, Types, Tools & Examples - Guru99 : What is Acceptance Testing? Definition, Types, Tools & Examples - Guru99

Answer: C
Explanation: The most effective method of destroying sensitive data stored on electronic media is physical destruction, which involves breaking, shredding, melting, or incinerating the media to make it unreadable and unrecoverable. Degaussing, random character overwrite, and low-level formatting are methods of sanitizing or erasing data from electronic media, but they do not guarantee complete destruction of data and may leave some traces that can be recovered by advanced techniques. Therefore, physical destruction is the most secure and reliable method of data disposal for sensitive data. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5: Protection of Information Assets, Section 5.4: Data Disposal

Answer: D
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor when auditing an organization’s IT strategy development process is that information security was not included as a key objective in the IT strategic plan. Information security is a vital component of IT strategy, as it ensures the confidentiality, integrity and availability of information assets, and supports the business objectives and regulatory compliance. The other options are not as significant as the lack of information security in the IT strategic plan. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1, Section 1.31

Answer: A
Explanation: Maintaining an onboarding and annual security awareness program is the best way to prevent social engineering incidents because it can educate the users about the common techniques and tactics used by social engineers and how to avoid falling victim to them. Ensuring user workstations are running the most recent version of antivirus software, including security responsibilities in job descriptions and requiring signed acknowledgment, and enforcing strict email security gateway controls are all good security practices, but they do not directly address the human factor that is exploited by social
engineering. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, p. 3671
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription2

Answer: B
Explanation: A digital signature is a specific type of e-signature that is backed by a digital certificate. A digital certificate is a document that contains the public key of a signer and is issued by a trusted third party called a certificate authority (CA). A digital signature provides proof of the identity of the signer and the integrity of the signed document.
A characteristic of a digital signature is that it is unique to the message. This means that a digital signature cannot be copied from one document to another without being detected as invalid. A digital signature is created by applying a mathematical function called a hashing algorithm to the document. A hashing algorithm produces a fixed-length output called a hash or digest from any input data. The hash is unique to the input data; any change in the input data will result in a different hash.
The signer then encrypts the hash with their private key (a secret key that only they know) to create the digital signature. The encrypted hash is attached to the document as the digital signature. The recipient of the document can verify the digital signature by decrypting it with the signer’s public key (a key that is publicly available and matches the private key) to obtain the hash. The recipient then applies the same hashing algorithm to the document to generate another hash. The recipient then compares the two hashes; if they match, it means that the document has not been altered and that the signer is authentic.
Therefore, a digital signature is unique to the message because it is derived from the hash of the message, which is unique to the message.
References:

7: Free Online Signature Generator (Type or Draw) | Signaturely
8: What are digital signatures and certificates? | Acrobat Sign - Adobe
9: eSign PDF with Electronic Signature Free Online - Smallpdf

Answer: B
Explanation: The audit finding that should be of greatest concern is that tasks defined on the critical path do not have resources allocated, as this means that the project is likely to face significant delays and cost overruns, since the critical path is the sequence of activities that determines the minimum time required to complete the project. The actual start times of some activities being later than originally scheduled may indicate some minor deviations from the project plan, but they may not necessarily affect the overall project completion time if they are not on the critical path. The project manager lacking formal certification may affect the quality and efficiency of the project management process, but it does not necessarily imply that the project manager is incompetent or unqualified. Milestones have been defined for all project products, but they may not be realistic or achievable if they do not take into account the resource constraints and dependencies of the critical path tasks. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.3: IT Project Management

Answer: C
Explanation: The most important thing for an IS auditor to validate when auditing network device management is that all devices have current security patches assessed. This is because security patches are essential for fixing known vulnerabilities and preventing unauthorized access, data breaches, or denial-of-service attacks on the network devices. If the network devices are not patched regularly, they may expose the network to various cyber threats and compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the network services and data12.
Devices cannot be accessed through service accounts is not the most important thing to validate because service accounts are typically used for automated tasks or processes that require privileged access to network devices. Service accounts can be secured by using strong passwords, limiting their permissions, and monitoring their activities. However, service accounts alone do not protect the network devices from external or internal attacks that exploit unpatched vulnerabilities3.
Backup policies include device configuration files is not the most important thing to validate because backup policies are mainly used for restoring the network devices in case of failure, disaster, or corruption. Backup policies can help with recovering the network functionality and data, but they do not prevent the network devices from being compromised or attacked in the first place. Backup policies should be complemented by security policies that ensure the network devices are patched and protected4.
All devices are located within a protected network segment is not the most important thing to validate because network segmentation is a technique that divides the network into smaller subnets or zones based on different criteria, such as function, security level, or access control. Network segmentation can help isolate and contain the impact of a potential attack on a network device, but it does not prevent the attack from happening. Network segmentation should be combined with security patching and other security measures to ensure the network devices are secure.

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest risk if two users have concurrent access to the same database record is data integrity. Data integrity is the property that ensures that the data is accurate, complete, consistent, and valid throughout its lifecycle. If two users have concurrent access to the same database record, they may modify or delete the data in a conflicting or inconsistent manner, resulting in data corruption, loss, or duplication. This can affect the reliability and quality of the data, and cause errors or anomalies in the database operations and functions. The IS auditor should verify that the database has adequate controls to prevent or resolve concurrent access issues, such as locking mechanisms, transaction isolation levels, concurrency control protocols, or timestamping methods. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.7

Answer: D
Explanation: The best performance indicator for the effectiveness of an incident management program is the incident resolution meantime. This is the average time it takes to resolve an incident from the moment it is reported to the moment it is closed. The incident resolution meantime reflects how quickly and efficiently the incident management team can restore normal service and minimize the impact of incidents on the business operations and customer satisfaction.
The average time between incidents (option A) is not a good performance indicator for the effectiveness of an incident management program, as it does not measure how well the incidents are handled or resolved. It only shows how frequently the incidents occur, which may depend on various factors beyond the control of the incident management team, such as the complexity and reliability of the systems, the security threats and vulnerabilities, and the user behavior and expectations.
The incident alert meantime (option B) is the average time it takes to detect and report an incident. While this is an important metric for measuring the responsiveness and awareness of the incident management team, it does not indicate how effective the incident management program is in resolving the incidents and restoring normal service.
The number of incidents reported (option C) is also not a good performance indicator for the effectiveness of an incident management program, as it does not reflect how well the incidents are handled or resolved. It only shows how many incidents are identified and recorded, which may vary depending on the reporting channels, tools, and procedures used by the incident management team and the users.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
References:

Incident Management: Processes, Best Practices & Tools - Atlassian
What is backup and disaster recovery? | IBM

Answer: C
Explanation: The first step for the security incident response team after an IS security attack is reported is to perform a damage assessment. This involves identifying the scope, impact and root cause of the incident, as well as collecting and preserving evidence for further analysis and investigation. Reporting results to management, documenting lessons learned and prioritizing resources for corrective action are important steps, but they should be done after the damage assessment is completed. References: CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 6, Section 6.31

Answer: A
Explanation: Capacity management tools are primarily used to ensure that available resources are used efficiently and effectively to meet the current and future demands of the business. Capacity management tools can help monitor, analyze and optimize the performance and utilization of IT resources such as CPU, memory, disk, network, etc. The other options are not the primary purpose of capacity management tools, although they may be related or derived from them. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition,chapter 4, section 4.32
ISACA, COBIT 2019 Framework: Introduction and Methodology, section 3.2

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to provide assurance of the integrity of a firewall log is to ensure that the log cannot be modified. A firewall log is a record of the traffic and events that occur at the firewall, which is a device or software that controls and filters the incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predefined rules and policies. The integrity of a firewall log means that the log is accurate, complete, consistent, and valid, and that it has not been altered, deleted, or corrupted by unauthorized or malicious parties. The IS auditor should verify that the firewall log has adequate controls to prevent or detect any modification of the log, such as encryption, hashing, digital signatures, write-once media, or tamper-evident seals. The other options are not as effective as ensuring that the log cannot be modified, because they either do not address the integrity of the log data, or they are monitoring or retention measures rather than preventive or detective controls. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4

Answer: C
Explanation: The best control for detecting unauthorized data changes in an IT organization where many responsibilities are shared is to have data changes independently reviewed by another group. This is because an independent review can provide an objective and unbiased verification of the data changes and ensure that they are authorized, accurate, and complete. An independent review can also help to detect any errors, fraud, or malicious activities that may have occurred during the data changes. An independent review can also provide assurance that the data integrity and security are maintained. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.31
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 4, Lesson 22

Answer: B
Explanation: An organization outsourced its IS functions. To meet its responsibility for disaster recovery, the organization should coordinate disaster recovery administration with the outsourcing vendor. This is because the organization remains accountable for ensuring the continuity and availability of its IS functions, even if they are outsourced to a third party. The organization should establish clear roles and responsibilities, communication channels, testing procedures, and escalation processes with the outsourcing vendor for disaster recovery purposes. The organization should not discontinue maintenance of the disaster recovery plan (DRP), as it still needs to have a documented and updated plan for restoring its IS functions in case of a disaster. The organization should not delegate evaluation of disaster recovery to a third party or internal audit, as it still needs to monitor and review the performance and compliance of the outsourcing vendor with respect to disaster recovery objectives and standards. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), [ISACA Auditing Standards]

Answer: D
Explanation: The design phase of the system development life cycle (SDLC) is where an IS auditor would expect to find that controlshave been incorporated into system specifications, because this is where the system requirements are translated intodetailed design specifications that include the technical, functional, and security aspects of the system34. The implementation phase iswhere the system is deployed and tested, the development phase is where the system is codedand unit tested, and thefeasibility phase is where the system objectives and scope are defined. References: 3: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 4, Section 4.2.2 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 4, Lesson 2

Answer: C
Explanation: The greatest concern to an IS auditor conducting an audit of an organization that recently experienced a ransomware attack is that backups were only performed within the local network. This means that the backups could have been encrypted or deleted by the ransomware, making it impossible to restore the data and systems without paying the ransom or losing the data. Backups are a critical part of the recovery process from a ransomware attack, and they should be performed frequently, securely, and off-site or in the cloud to ensure their availability and integrity.
The other options are not as concerning as option C, although they may also indicate some security weaknesses. Antivirus software was unable to prevent the attack even though it was properly updated, but this is not surprising given that ransomware variants are constantly evolving and antivirus software may not be able to detect them all. The most recent security patches were not tested prior to implementation, but this is a trade-off between security and availability that may be justified depending on the severity and urgency of the patches. Employees were not trained on cybersecurity policies and procedures, but this is a preventive measure that may not have prevented the attack if it was initiated by other means such as phishing or exploiting vulnerabilities.
References:

10: Infrastructure-as-a-Service Security Responsibilities - CloudTweaks
5: 3 steps to prevent and recover from ransomware | Microsoft Security Blog
7: How to Recover From a Ransomware Attack - eSecurityPlanet

Answer: D
Explanation: The answer D is correct because the number of reopened tickets is the best indicator for measuring the performance of IT help desk function. Reopened tickets are tickets that have been marked as resolved by the help desk agents, but the customers are not satisfied with the resolution and reopen them for further assistance. Reopened tickets reflect the quality and effectiveness of the help deskservice, as well as the customer satisfaction level. A high number of reopened tickets indicates that the help desk agents are not resolving the issues properly, or that they are not communicating well with the customers. This can lead to customer frustration, dissatisfaction, and churn. Therefore, minimizing the number of reopened tickets is a key goal for any help desk function.
The other options are not as good as option D. Percentage of problems raised from incidents (option A) is a metric that shows how many incidents are escalated to problems, which are more complex and require root cause analysis and long-term solutions. This metric reflects the complexity and severity of the issues faced by the customers, but it does not directly measure the performance of the help desk function. Mean time to categorize tickets (option B) is a metric that shows how long it takes for the help desk agents to assign a category to each ticket, such as technical, billing, or feedback. This metric reflects the efficiency and accuracy of the help desk agents, but it does not measure the quality or effectiveness of the resolution. Number of incidents reported (option C) is a metric that shows how many issues are reported by the customers to the help desk function. This metric reflects the demand and workload of the help desk function, but it does not measure how well the issues are resolved or how satisfied the customers are.
References:

Key Metrics to Measure Help Desk Performance
8 service desk KPIs and performance metrics for IT support
13 Most ImportantHelp Desk KPIs to Track and Measure Help Desk Performance

Answer: B
Explanation: Requiring a key code to be entered on the printer to produce hard copy is a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because requiring a key code adds an extra layer of security and authentication to the printing process, ensuring that only authorized users can access and retrieve the printed documents. Requiring a key code also prevents unauthorized users from viewingor tampering with the documents while they are in the printer’s queue or output tray1. Using passwords to allow authorized users to send documents to the printer is not a sufficient method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because passwords only protect the transmission of the documents from the user’s computer to the printer, but they do not protect the documents once they are printed. Passwords can also be compromised or forgotten by users, making them vulnerable to unauthorized access or denial of service2.
Encrypting the data stream between the user’s computer and the printer is not a sufficient method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because encryption only protects the confidentiality and integrity of the documents while they are in transit, but they do not protect the documents once they are printed. Encryption can also introduce performance issues or compatibility problems with different printers or devices2. Producing a header page with classification level for printed documents is not a method to prevent disclosure of classified documents printed on a shared printer. This is because producing a header page only informs the users about the sensitivity and handling of the documents, but it does not prevent unauthorized users from accessing or viewing them. Producing a header page can also waste paper and ink, as well asincrease the risk of misplacing or mixing up the documents

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared customer relationship management (CRM) system is that audit logging is not enabled. Audit logging is a process that records and tracks the activities and events that occur on a system, such as who accessed what data, when, how, and why. Audit logging can help monitor and verify the compliance and effectiveness of the access controls, as well as detect and investigate any unauthorized or suspicious access or actions. Audit logging can also provide evidence and accountability for the security and integrity of the system and the data.
Without audit logging, the IS auditor would not be able to audit the access controls for the shared CRM system, as there would be no reliable or traceable records of the access history or patterns. Without audit logging, the organization would also not be able to identify or respond to any potential breaches or incidents that may compromise the confidentiality, availability, or accuracy of the CRM data. Without audit logging, the organization would also not be able to demonstrate or prove itscompliance with any applicable policies, regulations, or standards that may require audit logging for CRM systems.
Single sign-on is not enabled is not a great concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared CRM system, but rather a potential improvement or enhancement. Single sign-on is a process that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as a username and password. Single sign-on can help simplify and streamline the user experience, as well as reduce the risk of password fatigue or compromise. However, single sign-on is not a mandatory or essential requirement for access controls, and it may also introduce some challenges or risks, such as dependency on a single point of failure or vulnerability.
Security baseline is not consistently applied is not a great concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared CRM system, but rather a minor issue or gap. Security baseline is a set of minimum security standards or requirements that apply to a system or application, such as password policies, encryption protocols, or firewall rules. Security baseline can help ensure that the system or application meets a certain level of security and compliance. However, security baseline is not a sufficient or comprehensive measure for access controls, and it may also need to be customized or adjusted according to the specific needs and risks of each system or application.
Complex passwords are not required is not a great concern for an IS auditor evaluating the access controls for a shared CRM system, but rather a common practice or recommendation. Complex passwords are passwords that are composed of a combination of different types of characters, such as letters, numbers, symbols, and cases. Complex passwords can help prevent or deter brute-force attacks or guessing attempts by making the passwords harder to crack or predict. However, complex passwords are not a guarantee or guarantee of security, and they may also have some drawbacks or limitations, such as user inconvenience, memorability issues, or reuse across multiple systems or applications.
References:

Customer Relationship Management Risks and Controls - CRM Simplified 1
Customer relationship management: A guide - Zendesk 2
How to Protect Your Customer Relationship Management (CRM) Data from Hackers 3
What is CRM? | A Definition by Salesforce 4

Answer: B
Explanation: An incident response team has been notified of a virus outbreak in a network subnet. The next step should be to focus on limiting the damage by containing the virus and preventing it from spreading further. This may involve isolating the affected systems, disconnecting them from the network, blocking malicious traffic or applying patches or antivirus updates. Verifying that the compromised systems are fully functional, documenting the incident and removing and restoring the affected systems are possible steps that could be taken after limiting the damage. References:

: [Incident Response Definition]
: [Incident Response Process | ISACA]
: [Virus Definition]

Answer: C
Explanation: The best option to support the organization’s objectives of protecting data confidentiality while transporting data is encryption. Encryption is a process of transforming data into an unreadable form using a secret key or algorithm, so that only authorized parties can access the original data. Encryption protects the confidentiality of data in transit by preventing unauthorized interception,modification, or disclosure of the data. Encryption can also help comply with data privacy and security regulations, such as the GDPR and HIPAA.
The other options are not as effective as encryption in protecting data confidentiality while transporting data. Cryptographic hashes are mathematical functions that generate a fixed-length output from an input, but they do not encrypt the data. Hashes are used to verify the integrity and authenticity of data, but they do not prevent unauthorized access to the data. Virtual local area network (VLAN) is a logical grouping of network devices that share the same broadcast domain, but they do not encrypt the data. VLANs can improve network performance and security by isolating traffic, but they do not protect the data from being intercepted or modified by external attackers. Dedicated lines are physical connections that provide exclusive access to a network or service, but they do not encrypt the data. Dedicated lines can offer higher bandwidth and reliability, but they do not guarantee the confidentiality of the data from being compromised by physical tampering or eavesdropping.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 2471
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations
Database - 12 Month Subscription2 Data Security and Confidentiality Guidelines - Centers for Disease Control and Prevention3
Information Security | Confidentiality - GeeksforGeeks4

Answer: A
Explanation: The greatest impact as a result of the ongoing deterioration of a detective control is an increased number of false negatives in security logs. A detective control is a control that monitors and identifies any deviations or anomalies from the expected or normal behavior or performance of a system or process. A security log is a record of events or activities that occur within a system or network, such as user access, file changes, system errors, or security incidents. A false negative is a situation where a security log fails to detect or report an actual deviation or anomaly that has occurred, such as an unauthorized access, a malicious modification, or a security breach. An increased number of false negatives in security logs can have a significant impact on the organization’s security posture and risk management, because it can prevent timely detection and response to security threats, compromise the accuracy and reliability of security monitoring and reporting, and undermine the accountability and auditability of user actions and transactions. The other options are not as impactful as anincreased number of false negatives in security logs, because they either do not affect the detection capability of a detective control, or they have less severe consequences for security management. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1

Answer: D
Explanation: The greatest advantage of vulnerability scanning over penetration testing is that the testing process can be automated to cover large groups of assets. Vulnerability scanning is an automated, high-level security test that reports its findings of known vulnerabilities in systems, networks, applications, and devices. Vulnerability scanning can be performed frequently, quickly, and efficiently to scan a large number of assets and identify potential weaknesses that need to be addressed. Vulnerability scanning can also help organizations comply with security standards and regulations, such as PCI DSS1.
The other options are not as advantageous as option D, as they may not reflect the true benefits or limitations of vulnerability scanning compared to penetration testing. The testing produces a lower number of false positive results, but this is not necessarily true, as vulnerability scanning may report vulnerabilities that are not exploitable or relevant in the context of the organization. Network bandwidth is utilized more efficiently, but this may not be a significant advantage, as vulnerability scanning may still consume considerable network resources depending on the scope and frequency of the scans. Custom-developed applications can be tested more accurately, but this is also not true, as vulnerability scanning may not be able to detect complex or unknown vulnerabilities that require manual analysis or exploitation.
References:

1: Vulnerability scanning vs penetration testing: What’s the difference? | TechRepublic
2: Vulnerability Scanning vs. Penetration Testing - Fortinet
3: Penetration Test Vs Vulnerability Scan | Digital Defense
4: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning: What’s the difference?
5: Penetration Testing vs. Vulnerability Scanning | Secureworks
6: PCI DSS Quick Reference Guide - PCI Security Standards Council

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing an online security awareness program is that metrics have not been established to assess training results. Without metrics, it is difficult to measure the effectiveness of the program and identify areas for improvement. The other findings are alsoissues that need to be addressed, but they are not as significant as the lack of metrics. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 5, Section 5.3.11

Answer: B
Explanation: The best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process is to perform periodic complete data restorations. This is the process of transferring backup data to the primary system or data center and verifying that the restored data is accurate, complete, and functional. By performing periodic complete data restorations, the auditee can test the reliability and validity of the backup data, the functionality and performance of the restoration tools and procedures, and the compatibility and integrity of the restored data with the primary system. This will also help identify and resolve any issues or errors that may occur during the restoration process, such as corrupted or missing files, incompatible formats, or configuration problems.
Performing periodic reviews of physical access to backup media (option A) is not the best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process, as it only ensures the security and availability of the backup media, not the quality or usability of the backup data. Physical access reviews are important for preventing unauthorized access, theft, damage, or loss of backup media, but they do not test the actual restoration process or verify that the backup data can be successfully restored.
Validating offline backups using software utilities (option C) is also not the best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process, as it only checks the integrity and consistency of the backup data, not the functionality or compatibility of the restored data. Software utilities can help detect and correct any errors or inconsistencies in the backup data, such as checksum errors, duplicate files, or incomplete backups, but they do not test the actual restoration process or verify that the restored data can work with the primary system.
Reviewing and updating data restoration policies annually (option D) is also not the best way to verify the effectiveness of a data restoration process, as it only ensures that the policies are current and relevant, not that they are implemented and followed. Data restoration policies are important for defining roles and responsibilities, objectives and scope, standards and procedures, and metrics and reporting for the restoration process, but they do not test the actual restoration process or verify that it meets the expected outcomes.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References:

Whatis backup and disaster recovery? | IBM
Backup and Recovery of Data: The Essential Guide | Veritas
Database Backup and Recovery Best Practices - ISACA

Answer: D
Explanation: The answer D is correct because the most important thing to determine when conducting an audit of an organization’s data privacy practices is whether the systems inventory containing personal data is maintained. A systems inventory is a list of all the systems, applications, databases, and devices that store, process, or transmit personal data within the organization. Maintaining a systems inventory is essential for data privacy because it helps the organization to identify, classify, and protect the personal data it holds, as well as to comply with the relevant privacy laws and regulations. A systems inventory also enables the organization to perform data protection impact assessments (DPIAs), data breach notifications, data subject access requests, and data retention and disposal policies. The other options are not as important as option D. Whether a disciplinary process is established for data privacy violations (option A) is a policy issue that may deter or sanction the employees who violate the data privacy rules, but it does not directly affect the data privacy practices of the organization. Whether strong encryption algorithms are deployed for personal data protection (option B) is a technical issue that may enhance the security and confidentiality of the personal data, but it does not address the other aspects of data privacy, such as accuracy, consent, and purpose limitation.Whether privacy technologies are implemented for personal data protection (option C) is also a technical issue that may support the data privacy practices of the organization, but it does not guarantee that the organization follows the best practices or complies with the applicable laws and regulations.
References:

IS Audit Basics: Auditing Data Privacy
Best Practices for Privacy Audits
ISACA Produces New Audit and Assurance Programs for Data Privacy and Mobile Computing

Answer: D
Explanation: The most important responsibility of user departments associated with program changes is approving changes before implementation. This is because user departments are the primary stakeholders and beneficiaries of the program changes, and they need to ensure that the changes meet their requirements, expectations, and objectives. User departments also need to approve the changes before implementation to avoid unauthorized, unnecessary, or erroneous changes that could affect the functionality, performance, or security of the program.
Providing unit test data is a responsibility of user departments associated with program changes, but it is not the most important one. Unit test data is used to verify that the individual components of the program work as expected after the changes. However, unit test data alone cannot guarantee that the program as a whole works correctly, or that the changes are aligned with the user departments’ needs.
Analyzing change requests is a responsibility of user departments associated with program changes, but it is not the most important one. Analyzing change requests is the process of evaluating the feasibility, necessity, and impact of the proposed changes. However, analyzing change requests does not ensure that the changes are implemented correctly, or that they are acceptable to the user departments.
Updating documentation to reflect latest changes is a responsibility of user departments associated with program changes, but it is not the most important one. Updating documentation is the process of maintaining accurate and complete records of the program’s specifications, features, and functionsafter the changes. However, updating documentation does not ensure that the changes are effective, or that they are approved by the user departments.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, p. 281
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: C
Explanation: Attribute sampling is a method of audit sampling that is used to test the effectiveness of controls by measuring the rate of deviation from a prescribed procedure or attribute.
Attribute sampling is suitable for testing compliance with the data center’s physical access log system, as the auditor can compare the identification document numbers and photos of the visitors with the records in the system and determine whether there are any discrepancies or errors. Attribute sampling can also provide an estimate of the deviation rate in the population and allow the auditor to draw a conclusion about the operating effectiveness of the control.
Variable sampling, on the other hand, is a method of audit sampling that is used to estimate the amount or value of a population by measuring a characteristic of interest, such as monetary value, quantity, or size. Variable sampling is not appropriate for testing compliance with the data center’s physical access log system, as the auditor is not interested in estimating the value of the population, but rather in testing whether the system is operating as intended.
Quota sampling and haphazard sampling are both examples of non-statistical sampling methods that do not use probability theory to select a sample. Quota sampling involves selecting a sample based on certain criteria or quotas, such as age, gender, or location. Haphazard sampling involves selecting a sample without any specific plan or method. Both methods are not suitable for testing compliance with the data center’s physical access log system, as they do not ensure that the sample is representative of the population and do not allow the auditor to measure the sampling risk or project the results to the population. Therefore, attribute sampling is the most useful sampling method for an IS auditor conducting compliance testing for the effectiveness of the data center’s physical access log system.
References:

Audit Sampling - What Is It, Methods, Example, Advantage, Reason
ISA 530: Audit sampling | ICAEW

Answer: A
Explanation: A database administrator (DBA) should be prevented from having end user responsibilities to avoid a conflict of interest and a violation of the principle of segregation of duties. End user responsibilities may include initiating transactions, authorizing transactions, recording transactions or reconciling transactions. A DBA who has end user responsibilities may compromise the integrity, confidentiality and availability of the data and the database systems. Accessing sensitive information, having access to production files and using an emergency user ID are not end user responsibilities, but rather potential risks or controls associated with the DBA role. References:

: Database Administrator (DBA) Definition
: Segregation of Duties | ISACA
: [End User Definition]

Answer: B
Explanation: The best reason for an IS auditor to emphasize to management the importance of using an IT governance framework is that frameworks can be tailored and optimized for different organizations. An IT governance framework is a set of principles, guidelines, and processes that help an organization align its IT strategy with its business goals, manage IT risks and performance, and deliver value from IT investments. An IT governance framework can be adapted and customized to suit the specific needs, context, and culture of each organization, taking into account factors such as size, industry, maturity, objectives, and stakeholders. An IT governance framework can also help an organization adopt best practices and standards from various sources, such as COBIT2, ITIL3, ISO/IEC 200004, and others.
The other options are not as good as option B, as they may not capture the full scope or benefits of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks enable IT benchmarks against competitors, but this is not the main purpose or advantage of using an IT governance framework. Frameworks help facilitate control self-assessments (CSAs), but this is only one aspect or tool of an IT governance framework. Frameworks help organizations understand and manage IT risk, but this is also only one outcome or objective of an IT governance framework.
References:

1: What is ITIL? Your guide to the IT Infrastructure Library | CIO
2: IT Governance Framework | Components | Framework | Terminology - EDUCBA
3: IT Governance: Definitions, Frameworks and Planning - ProjectManager
4: What Is IT Governance? - Definition from Techopedia
5: What is IT Governance? A formal way to align IT & business strategy | CIO
6: What Is IT Governance? - Definition from WhatIs.com
7: ISO/IEC 20000 Information Technology Service Management Systems Standard - ISO/IEC 20000 Portal
8: COBIT | Control Objectives for Information Technologies | ISACA

Answer: A
Explanation: A distributed security administration system is a system that allows different administrators to manage the security of different parts of the network or organization. This can provide more flexibility, scalability, and efficiency than a centralized system, where one administrator is responsible for the entire security. However, a distributed security administration system also presents some potential challenges and risks, such as:
Inconsistency and conflict among different security policies and standards
Lack of coordination and communication among different administrators
Difficulty in monitoring and auditing the overall security status and performance
Increased complexity and cost of security management and maintenance
Therefore, the greatest potential concern for implementing a distributed security administration system is that the security procedures may be inadequate to support the change. Security procedures are the rules and guidelines that define how security is implemented and enforced in an organization. They include policies, standards, processes, roles, responsibilities, controls, and metrics. Security procedures should be aligned with the business objectives, risks, and requirements of the organization, as well as the best practices and regulations in the industry. Security procedures should also be reviewed and updated regularly to reflect the changes in the environment, technology, and threats. If the security procedures are not adequate to support the change from a centralized to a distributed security administration system, the organization may face increased security risks, such as unauthorized access, data breaches, compliance violations, reputation damage, and financial losses. Therefore, it is essential to ensure that the security procedures are revised and adapted to suit the new system, and that they are communicated and enforced effectively across the organization.
References:
1: Security in Distributed System - GeeksforGeeks
2: Distributed System Security Architecture - Wikipedia
3: Distributed Systems Security: Issues, Processes and Solutions

Answer: C
Explanation: Information security governance is the subset of enterprise governance that provides strategic direction, ensures that objectives are achieved, manages risk appropriately, uses organizational resources responsibly, and monitors the success or failure of the enterprise security program. Information security governance is essential for ensuring that an organization’s information assets are protected from internal and external threats, and that the organization complies with relevant laws and standards.
Demonstrated support from which of the following roles in an organization has the most influence over information security governance? The answer is C, the board of directors. The board of directors is the highest governing body of an organization, responsible for overseeing its strategic direction, performance, and accountability. The board of directors sets the tone at the top for information security governance by:
Establishing a clear vision, mission, and values for information security
Approving and reviewing information security policies and standards
Allocating sufficient resources and budget for information security
Appointing and empowering a chief information security officer (CISO) or equivalent role
Holding management accountable for information security performance and compliance
Communicating and promoting information security awareness and culture
The board of directors has the most influence over information security governance because it has the ultimate authority and responsibility for ensuring that information security is aligned with the organization’s business objectives, risks, and stakeholder expectations.
References:

10: What is Information Security Governance? — RiskOptics - Reciprocity
11: Information Security Governance and Risk Management | Moss Adams
12: ISO/IEC 27014:2020 - Information security, cybersecurity and privacy …

Answer: C
Explanation: The risk that is most affected by this oversight is audit risk. Audit risk is the risk that the auditor may express an inappropriate opinion or conclusion based on the audit evidence obtained. Audit risk consists of inherent risk, control risk, and detection risk. Inherent risk is the risk that material errors or frauds exist in the audited area before considering the effectiveness of internal controls. Control risk is the risk that the internal controls fail to prevent or detect material errors or frauds. Detection risk is the risk that the auditor fails to identify material errors or frauds using the audit procedures performed. In this case, the auditor has overlooked evidence that could contradict a conclusion of the audit, which increases the detection risk and consequently the audit risk. References:

CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion), Chapter 2, Section 2.31
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 1, Lesson 32

Answer: C
Explanation: A feasibility study is an assessment that determines the likelihood of a proposed project being successful, such as a new system development1. A feasibility study typically covers various aspects of the project, such as technical, economic, operational and legal feasibility2. The IS auditor’s role is to audit the feasibility study and ensure that it is objective, realistic and reliable3.
One of the most important aspects of a feasibility study is the economic feasibility, which analyzes the costs and benefits of the proposed system and compares them with alternative solutions2. Theeconomic feasibility study should include a detailed breakdown of the development, implementation and operational costs, as well as the expected revenues, savings and intangible benefits of the system3. The IS auditor should review the cost-benefit documentation for reasonableness and accuracy, and verify that the assumptions and calculations are valid and supported by evidence3.
The other options are not directly related to auditing the feasibility study of a system development project. Reviewing qualifications of key members of the project team (option A) is more relevant to auditing the project management and human resources aspects of the project. Reviewing the request for proposal (RFP) to ensure that it covers the scope of work (option B) is more relevant to auditing the procurement and vendor selection process of the project. Ensuring that vendor contracts are reviewed by legal counsel (option D) is more relevant to auditing the legal and contractual aspects of the project.
References: 3: Types of Feasibility Study in Software Project Development 2: Feasibility Analysis in System Development Process 1: What Is a Feasibility Study? Definition, Benefits and Types

Answer: D
Explanation: Application containers are a form of operating system virtualization that share the same kernel as the host operating system. This means that any vulnerability or compromise in the kernel can affect all the containers running on the same host, as well as the host itself. Additionally, containers may have privileged access to the kernel resources and functions, which can pose a risk of unauthorized or malicious actions by the container processes. Therefore, securing the kernel is a critical aspect of application container security.
Shared registries (option A) are not an inherent risk in the application container infrastructure, but they are a potential risk that depends on how they are configured and managed. Shared registries are repositories that store and distribute container images. They can be public or private, and they can have different levels of security and access controls. Shared registries can pose a risk of exposing sensitive data, distributing malicious or vulnerable images, or allowing unauthorized access to images. However, these risks can be mitigated by using secure connections, authentication and authorization mechanisms, image signing and scanning, and encryption.
Host operating system (option B) is not an inherent risk in the application container infrastructure, but it is a potential risk that depends on how it is configured and maintained. Host operating system is the underlying platform that runs the application containers and provides them with the necessary resources and services. Host operating system can pose a risk of exposing vulnerabilities, misconfigurations, or malware that can affect the containers or the host itself. However, these risks can be mitigated by using minimal and hardened operating systems, applying patches and updates, enforcing security policies and controls, and isolating and monitoring the host.
Shared data (option C) is not an inherent risk in the application container infrastructure, but it is a potential risk that depends on how it is stored and accessed. Shared data is the information that is used or generated by the application containers and that may be shared among them or with external entities. Shared data can pose a risk of leaking confidential or sensitive data, corrupting or losing data integrity, or violating data privacy or compliance requirements. However, these risks can be mitigated by using secure storage solutions, encryption and decryption mechanisms, access control and auditing policies, and backup and recovery procedures.
Therefore, option D is the correct answer.
References:

Application Container Security Guide | NIST
CSA for a Secure Application Container Architecture
Application Container Security: Risks and Countermeasures

Answer: D
Explanation: A disaster recovery plan (DRP) is a set of detailed, documented guidelines that outline a business’ critical assets and explain how the organization will respond to unplanned incidents. Unplanned incidents or disasters typically include cyberattacks, system failures, power outages, natural disasters, equipment failures, or infrastructure damage1. A DRP aims to minimize the impact of a disaster on the business continuity, data integrity, and service delivery of the organization. A DRP also helps the organization recover from a disaster as quickly and efficiently as possible.
A DRP should include steps for obtaining replacement supplies, as this is an essential part of restoring the normal operation of the organization after a disaster. Replacement supplies may include hardware, software, data, network components, office equipment, or other resources that are needed to resume the business functions and processes that were disrupted by the disaster. Obtaining replacement supplies may involve contacting vendors, suppliers, or partners; activating backup or alternative systems; or purchasing or renting new equipment. A DRP should identify the sources, locations, and costs of the replacement supplies, as well as the procedures and responsibilities for acquiring and installing them. The other three options are not steps that a DRP should include, as they are either part of the pre-disaster planning process or not directly related to the disaster recovery objectives. Assessing and quantifying risk is a step that should be done before creating a DRP, as it helps identify the potential threats and vulnerabilities that could affect the organization and determine the likelihood and impact of each scenario2. Negotiating contracts with disaster planning consultants is also a pre-disaster activity that may help the organization design, implement, test, and maintain a DRP with external expertise and guidance3. Identifying application control requirements is not a step in a DRP, but rather a part of the application development and maintenance process that ensures the quality, security, and reliability of the software applications used by the organization.
Therefore, obtaining replacement supplies is the correct answer.
References:

What is a Disaster Recovery Plan? + Complete Checklist
Risk Assessment- ISACA
Disaster Recovery Planning - ISACA
[Application Controls - ISACA]

Answer: A
Explanation: The auditor should first escalate to audit management to discuss the audit plan. This is because the audit plan should be based on a risk assessment and aligned with the organization’s objectives and strategies. The auditor should not accept the CIO’s request without proper justification and approval from the audit management, who are responsible for ensuring the audit plan’s quality and independence. The auditor should also communicate the potential risks and implications of not conducting IS audits in the upcoming year, such as missing new or emerging threats, vulnerabilities, or compliance issues. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2, Section 2.11
CISA Online Review Course, Domain 1, Module 1, Lesson 22

Answer: B
Explanation: The answer B is correct because the most important thing for an IS auditor to review when determining whether IT investments are providing value to the business is the business strategy. The business strategy is the plan or direction that guides the organization’s decisions and actions to achieve its goals and objectives. The business strategy defines the organization’s vision, mission, values, competitive advantage, target market, value proposition, and key performance indicators (KPIs).
IT investments are the expenditures or costs incurred by the organization to acquire, develop, maintain, or improve its IT assets, such as hardware, software, network, data, or services. IT investments can help the organization to support its business processes, operations, functions, and capabilities. IT investments can also help the organization to create or enhance its products, services, or solutions for its customers or stakeholders.
To determine whether IT investments are providing value to the business, an IS auditor needs to review how well the IT investments align with and contribute to the business strategy. Alignment means that the IT investments are consistent and compatible with the business strategy, and that they support and enable the achievement of the strategic goals and objectives. Contribution meansthat the IT investments are effective and efficient in delivering the expected outcomes and benefits for the business, and that they generate a positive return on investment (ROI) or value for money.
An IS auditor can use various methods or frameworks to review the alignment and contribution of IT investments to the business strategy, such as:
Balanced scorecard: A balanced scorecard is a tool that measures and monitors the performance of an organization across four perspectives: financial, customer, internal process, and learning and growth. A balanced scorecard can help an IS auditor to evaluate how well the IT investments support and improve each perspective of the organization’s performance, and how they link to the organization’s vision and strategy.
Value chain analysis: A value chain analysis is a tool that identifies and analyzes the primary and support activities that add value to an organization’s products or services. A value chain analysis can help an IS auditor to assess how well the IT investments enhance or optimize each activity of the value chain, and how they create or sustain a competitive advantage for the organization.
Business case analysis: A business case analysis is a tool that evaluates the feasibility, viability, and desirability of a proposed project or initiative. A business case analysis can help an IS auditor to examine how well the IT investments address a business problem or opportunity, how they deliver the expected benefits and outcomes for the stakeholders, and how they compare with alternative options or solutions.
The other options are not as important as option B. Return on investment (ROI) (option A) is a metric that measures the profitability or efficiency of an investment by comparing its benefits or returns with its costs or expenses. ROI can help an IS auditor to quantify the value of IT investments for the business, but it does not capture all aspects of value, such as quality, satisfaction, or impact. ROI also depends on how well the IT investments align with the business strategy in the first place. Business cases (option C) are documents that justify and support a proposed project or initiative by describing its objectives, scope, benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. Business cases can help an IS auditor to understand the rationale and expectations for IT investments, but they do not guarantee that the IT investments will actually deliver the desired value for the business. Business cases also need to be aligned with the business strategy to ensure their relevance and validity. Total cost of ownership (TCO) (option D) is a metric that measures the total costs incurred by an organization to acquire, operate, maintain, and dispose of an IT asset over its life cycle. TCO can help an IS auditor to estimate the financial impact of IT investments for the business, but it does not reflect the benefits or outcomes of IT investments, nor does it indicate how well the IT investments support or enable the business strategy. References:

IT Strategy: Aligning IT & Business Strategy
How To Measure The Value Of Your Technology Investments
IT Investment Management: A Framework for Assessing … - GAO
How To Align Your Technology Investments With Your Business Strategy

Answer: C
Explanation: The first step when conducting an IT risk assessment is to identify assets to be protected, which include hardware, software, data, processes, people, and facilities that support the business objectives and operations of an organization. Identifying assets to be protected helps to establish the scope and boundaries of the risk assessment, as well as the value and criticality of each asset. Identifying potential threats, assessing vulnerabilities, and evaluating controls in place are subsequent steps in the risk assessment process that depend on the identification of assets to be protected. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance & Management of IT, Section 2.3: IT Risk Management

Answer: C
Explanation: The lack of system documentation should be of most concern to an IS auditor reviewing the information systems acquisition, development, and implementation process. This is because system documentation is a vital source of information that describes the system’s purpose, functionality, design, architecture, testing, deployment, operation, and maintenance. System documentation helps the IS auditor to understand and evaluate the system’s quality, performance, security, compliance, and alignment with the business requirements and objectives. Without system documentation, the IS auditor may not be able to perform a thorough and effective audit of the system, aswell as identify any issues or risks that may affect the system’s reliability or integrity12.
Data owners are not trained on the use of data conversion tools is not the most concerning issue, although it may indicate a lack of user readiness or competence for the system implementation. Data conversion tools are software applications that help users to transform data from one format or structure to another, such as from legacy systems to new systems. Data owners are users who have the responsibility and authority to manage and control the data within their domain. Data owners should be trained on how to use data conversion tools to ensure that the data is accurately and securely transferred to the new system, as well as to avoid any data loss, corruption, or inconsistency. However, data owners are not the only users who need training for the system implementation, and data conversion tools are not the only tools that need training34.
A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise was not conducted is not the most concerning issue, although it may indicate a lack of continuous improvement or learning culture for the system development and implementation process. A post-implementation lessons-learned exercise is a meeting or a session that takes place after the completion of a system implementation project, where the project team and stakeholders discuss and document the successes and failures of the project, as well as identify any best practices or areas for improvement for future projects. Apost-implementation lessons-learned exercise can help to enhance the project management skills, knowledge, and performance of the project team and stakeholders, as well as to avoid repeating the same mistakes or problems in future projects56.
System deployment is routinely performed by contractors is not the most concerning issue, although it may pose some challenges or risks for the system implementation process. System deployment is the final stage of the system development life cycle (SDLC), where the system is installed and configured on the target environment and made available for use by end-users. System deployment can be performed by internal staff or external contractors, depending on the availability, expertise, and cost of resources. System deployment by contractors may offer some benefits such as faster delivery, lower cost, or higher quality than internal staff. However, system deployment by contractors mayalso introduce some risks such as loss of control, dependency, or security breaches over the system implementation process

Answer: C
Explanation: The best assurance of data integrity after file transfers is hash values. Hash values are unique strings that are generated by applying a mathematical function to the data. Hash values can be used to verify that the data has not been altered or corrupted during the transfer, as any change in the data would result in a different hash value. By comparing the hash values of the source and destination files, one can confirm that the data is identical and intact.
The other options are not as effective as hash values for ensuring data integrity after file transfers. Check digits are digits added to a number to detect errors in data entry or transmission, but they are not reliable for detecting intentional or complex modifications of the data. Monetary unit sampling is a statistical sampling technique used for auditing financial statements, but it is not applicable for verifying data integrity after file transfers. Reasonableness check is a validation method that checks whether the data falls within an expected range or format, but it does not guarantee that the data is accurate or consistent with the source.
References:

5: On Windows, how to check that data is unchanged after copying? - Super User
6: Data integrity | Cloud Storage Transfer Service Documentation | Google Cloud
7: Checking File Integrity - HECC Knowledge Base
8: How to setup File Transfer Integrity Checks - Progress.com

Answer: B
Explanation: The most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program is whether the system’s performance poses a significant risk to the organization. IT capacity management is a process that ensures that IT resources are sufficient to meet current and future business needs, and that they are optimized for cost and performance. A poor IT capacity management can result in system slowdowns, outages, failures, or breaches, which can affect the availability, reliability, security, and efficiency of IT services and business processes. Therefore, before conducting an audit of IT capacity management, the auditor should assess the potential impact and likelihood of these risks on the organization’s objectives, reputation, compliance, and customer satisfaction.
Whether system delays result in more frequent use of manual processing (option A) is not the most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program, as it is only one possible consequence of poor IT capacity management. Manual processing can introduce errors, delays, inefficiencies, and inconsistencies in the data and reports, which can affect the quality and accuracy of financial information. However, manual processing is not the only or the worst outcome of poor IT capacity management; there may be other more severe or frequent risks that need to be considered.
Whether stakeholders are committed to assisting with the audit (option C) is also not the most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program, as it is a factor that affects the feasibility and effectiveness of the audit, not the necessity or priority of it. Stakeholder commitment is important for ensuring that the auditor has access to relevant information, documents, data, and personnel, as well as for facilitating communication, collaboration, and feedback during the audit process. However, stakeholder commitment is not a sufficient reason to conduct an audit of IT capacity management; there must be a clear risk-based rationale for selecting this area for audit. Whether internal auditors have the required skills to perform the audit (option D) is also not the most important thing to consider before including an audit of IT capacity management in the program, as it is a factor that affects the quality and credibility of the audit, not the urgency or importance of it. Internal auditors should have the appropriate knowledge, skills, and experience to perform an audit of IT capacity management, which may include technical, business, analytical, and communication skills. However, internal auditors can also acquire or supplement these skills through training, coaching, consulting, or outsourcing. Therefore, internal auditors’ skills are not a decisive factor for choosing this area for audit.
Therefore, option B is the correct answer.
References:

Guide to IT Capacity Management | Smartsheet
ISO 27001 capacity management: How to implement control A.12.1.3 - Advisera
ISO 27002:2022 – Control 8.6 – Capacity Management

Answer: C
Explanation: The most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system is whether the user requirements were met. User requirements are the specifications and expectations of the users of the system, such as the features, functions, performance, quality, and security of the system. User requirements are usually defined and documented in the early stages of the system acquisition process, such as in the request for proposal (RFP) or the contract. User requirements are also used as the basis for testing and evaluating the system before and after implementation. Determining whether the user requirements were met can help the IS auditor assess whether the system is fit for purpose and delivers value and benefits to the users and the organization. Determining whether the user requirements were met can also help the IS auditor identify any gaps, issues, or problems with the system that may affect its functionality, usability, or reliability. Determining whether the user requirements were met can also help the IS auditor provide feedback and recommendations for improvement or enhancement of the system.
Stakeholder expectations were identified is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system, but rather a prerequisite or input for it. Stakeholder expectations are the needs and wants of the various parties who have an interest or influence in the system, such as users, managers, customers, suppliers, regulators, or auditors. Stakeholder expectations are usually identified and analyzed in the initial stages of the system acquisition process, such as in the feasibility study or the business case. Stakeholder expectations are also used as inputs for defining and prioritizing the user requirements. Vendor product offered a viable solution is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system, but rather an outcome or result of it. Vendor product is the system that is provided by an external supplier or service provider to meet the user requirements.
Vendor product offered a viable solution means that the vendor product satisfied or exceeded the user requirements and delivered value and benefits to the users and organization. Vendor product offered a viable solution can be determined by comparing and evaluating the user requirements and the vendor product performance and quality.
Test scenarios reflected operating activities is not the most important thing for the IS auditor to determine in a post-implementation review of a recently purchased system, but rather a factor or criterion for it. Test scenarios are sets of conditions or situations that are used to test and verify whether the system meets the user requirements. Test scenarios reflected operating activities means that test scenarios simulated or replicated real-world scenarios that occur during normal operations of business processes or functions that use or depend on the system. Test scenarios reflected operating activities can help ensure that test results are valid, reliable, and relevant.
References:

Post Implementation Review: How to conduct and its Benefits 1
Post-implementation reviews - Department of Prime Minister and Cabinet 2
How To Conduct A Post Implementation Audit of Your RecentlyInstalled System 3

Answer: A
Explanation: A web proxy server for corporate connections to external resources reduces organizational risk by anonymizing users through changed IP addresses. A web proxy server is an intermediarybetween the web and client devices, that can provide proxy services to a client or a group of clients1. One of the main benefits of using a web proxy server is that it allows users to change their IP address andlocation, circumventing geoblocking and hiding their identity from the target website2.
Anonymizing internal IP addresses is important for online security, as it helps protect the organization from several threats. If an attacker controls a server that employees connect to, the outgoing IP address of the organization’s router is logged on the server. This IP address can be used by the attacker to launch a denial-of-service (DoS) attack or to create more targeted attacks such as phishing2. With a web proxy server, the IP shown in web logs is the web proxy’s, which means an attacker would not have access to theorganization’s router outgoing IP address2.
Anonymizing outgoing IP addresses is also important when carrying out sensitive actions online, such as law enforcement investigations or competitive intelligence. A web proxy server can help users avoid exposing their internal IP address that leads back to their organization, and instead use a third-party web proxy that provides more anonymity2. The other options are not directly related to reducing organizational risk by using a web proxy server. Providing multi-factor authentication for additional security (option B) is a benefit of some web proxy servers, but it is not the main purpose of using a web proxy server3. Providing faster response than direct access(option C) is a benefit of some web proxy servers that cache content forbetter data transfer speeds and less bandwidth usage, but it is not directly related to reducing organizational risk1. Load balancing traffic to optimize data pathways (option D) is a benefit of some web proxy servers that distribute traffic across multiple servers, but it is not directly related to reducing organizational risk4. References: 1: Proxy servers and tunneling 2: Multi-factor authentication: How to enable 2FA and boost your security 3: What Is Multi-factor Authentication (MFA) Security? 4: How it works: Microsoft Entra multifactor authentication

Answer: B
Explanation: The best description of an audit risk is that the financial report may contain undetected material errors. Audit risk is the risk that the auditor expresses an inappropriate opinion on the financial report when it contains material misstatements or errors. Audit risk consists of three components: inherentrisk, control risk, and detection risk. Inherent risk is the susceptibility of an assertion or a control to a material misstatement or error due to factors such as complexity, volatility, fraud, or human error. Control risk is the risk that a material misstatement or error will not be prevented or detected by the internal controls. Detection risk is the risk that the auditor’s procedures will not detect a material misstatement or error that exists in an assertion or a control. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: C
Explanation: The most appropriate control to prevent unauthorized retrieval of confidential information stored in a business application system is to enforce an internal data access policy. A data access policy defines who can access what data, under what conditions and for what purposes. It also specifies the roles and responsibilities of data owners, custodians and users, as well as the security measures and controls to protect data confidentiality, integrity and availability. By enforcing a data access policy, the organization can ensure that only authorized personnel can retrieve confidential informationfrom the business application system. Applying single sign-on for access control, implementing segregation of duties and enforcing the use of digital signatures are also useful controls, but they are not sufficient to prevent unauthorized data retrieval without a clear and comprehensive data access policy. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 2301
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription2

Answer: C
Explanation: Segregation of duties (SOD) is a core internal control and an essential component of an effective risk management strategy. SOD emphasizes sharing the responsibilities of key business processesby distributing the discrete functions of these processes to multiple people and departments, helping to reduce the risk of possible errors and fraud1.
SOD is especially important in IT security, where granting excessive system access to one person or group can lead to harmful consequences, such as data breaches, identity theft, or bypassing security controls2. SOD breaks IT-related tasks into four separate function categories: authorization, custody, recordkeeping, and reconciliation1. Ideally, no one person or department holds responsibility in multiple categories.
In a role-based environment, where access privileges are granted based on predefined roles, it is important to ensure that the roles are designed and assigned in a way that supports SOD. For example, the person who develops an application should not also be the one who tests it, deploys it, or maintains it.
Therefore, an application developer should not be assigned the roles of IT operator, system administration, or database administration, as these roles may conflict with their development role and create opportunities for misuse or abuse of the system. The only role that may be assigned to an application developer without violating SOD is emergency support, which is a temporary role that allows the developer to access the system in case of a critical issue that requires immediate resolution3. However, even this role should be granted with caution and monitored closely to ensure compliance with SOD policies.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, page 2824
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, QID 1066692
Hyperproof Blog, Segregation of Duties: What it is and Why it’s Important1
Advisera Blog, Segregation of duties in your ISMS according to ISO 27001 A.6.1.23

Answer: D
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s business continuity plan (BCP) is that the BCP has not been tested since it was first issued. A BCP is a document that describes how an organization will continue its critical business functions in the event of a disruption or disaster. A BCP should include information such as roles and responsibilities, recovery strategies, resources,procedures, communication plans, and backup arrangements3. Testing the BCP is a vital step in ensuring its validity, effectiveness, and readiness. Testing the BCP involves simulating various scenarios and executing the BCP to verify whether it meets its objectives and requirements. Testing the BCP can also help to identify and correct any gaps, errors, or weaknesses in the BCP before they become issues during a real incident4. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if the BCP has not been tested since it was first issued, as it may indicate that the BCP is outdated, inaccurate, incomplete, or ineffective. The other options are less concerning or incorrect because:
A. The BCP’s contact information needs to be updated is not a great concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s BCP, as it is a minor issue that can be easily fixed. Contact information refers to the names, phone numbers, email addresses, or other details of the people involved in the BCP execution or communication. Contact information needs to be updated regularly to reflect any changes in personnel or roles. While having outdated contact information may cause some delays or confusion during a BCP activation, it does not affect the overall validity or effectiveness of the BCP.
B. The BCP is not version controlled is not a great concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s BCP, as it is a moderate issue that can be improved. Version control refers to the process of tracking and managing changes made to the BCP over time. Version control helps to ensure that only authorized changes are made to the BCP and that there is a clear record of who made what changes when and why. Version control also helps to avoid conflicts or inconsistencies among different versions of the BCP. While having no version control may cause some difficulties or risks in maintaining and updating the BCP, it does not affect the overall validity or effectiveness of the BCP.
C. The BCP has not been approved by senior management is not a great concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s BCP, as it is a high-level issue that can be resolved. Approval by senior management refers to the formal endorsement and support of the BCP by the top executives or leaders of the organization. Approval by senior management helps to ensure that the BCP is aligned with the organization’s strategy, objectives, and priorities, and that it has sufficient resources and authority to be implemented. Approval by senior management also helps to increase the awareness and commitment of the organization’s stakeholders to the BCP. While having no approval by senior management may affect the credibilityand acceptance of the BCP, it does not affect the overall validity or effectiveness of the BCP. References: Working Toward a Managed, Mature Business Continuity Plan - ISACA, ISACA Introduces New Audit Programs for Business Continuity/Disaster …, Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity Preparedness for Cloud-based …

Answer: D
Explanation: The most likely application input control that would detect data input errors in the customer account number field during the processing of an accounts receivable transaction is a validity check. A validity check is a type of application control that verifieswhether the data entered in an application matches a predefined set of values or criteria1. For example, a validity check can compare the customer account number entered by the user with a list of existing customer account numbers stored in a database, and reject any input that does not match any of the valid values2.
The other options are not as likely to detect data input errors in the customer account number field, because they do not compare the input with a predefined set of values or criteria. A limit check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application falls within a specified range or limit1. For example, a limitcheck can ensure that the amount entered for an invoice does not exceed a certainmaximum value2. A parity check is a type of application control that verifies whether the data entered in an application has an even or odd number of bits1. For example, a parity check can detect transmission errors in binary data by adding an extra bit to the data and checking whether the number of bits is consistent3. A reasonableness check is a type of applicationcontrol that verifies whether the data entered in anapplication is logical or sensible based on other related data or information1. Forexample, a reasonableness check can ensure that the date entered for an order is not in the future or before the date of creation of the customer account2. References:

What are application controls? Definition, examples & best practices1
General Control Vs Application Control: Key Differences and Example …4
Parity Check - an overview | ScienceDirect Topics

Answer: A
Explanation: The most significant risk in virtualizing the server environment without making any other changes to the network or security infrastructure is the inability of the network intrusion detection system (IDS) to monitor virtual server-to-server communications. This can create blind spots for the IDS and allow malicious traffic to bypass detection. A vulnerability in the virtualization platform affecting multiple hosts is a potential risk, but not necessarily more significant than the loss of visibility. Data center environmental controls not aligning with new configuration or system documentation not being updated to reflect changes in the environment are operational issues, not security issues. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 373

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to enable the effectiveness of an agile project for the rapid development of a new software application is to separate the work into sprints. Sprints are short, time-boxed iterations that deliver a potentially releasable product increment at the end of each sprint. Sprints allow agile teams to work in a flexible and adaptive manner, respond quickly to changing customer needs and feedback, and deliver value faster and more frequently. Sprints also help teams to plan, execute, review, and improve their work in a collaborative and transparent way. Project segments, phases, and milestones are not specific to agile
projects and do not necessarily enable the effectiveness of an agile project. References: Agile Project Management [Whatis it & How to Start] - Atlassian, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version).

Answer: C
Explanation: The primary benefit of an audit approach that requires reported findings to be issued together with related action plans, owners, and target dates is that it establishes accountability for the action plans. Accountability means that the individuals or groups who are responsible for implementing the action plans are clearly identified and held liable for their completion within the specified time frame. Accountability also implies that the action plans are monitored and evaluated to ensure that they are effective and efficient in addressing the audit findings and mitigating the associated risks1. Accountability helps to ensure that the audit recommendations are taken seriously and implemented properly, and that the audit value is realized by the organization2. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
A. It facilitates easier audit follow-up is not the primary benefit of an audit approach that requires reported findings to be issued together with related action plans, owners, and target dates, as it is more of a secondary or indirect
benefit. Auditfollow-up is the process of verifying whether the action plans have been implemented and whether they have resolved the audit findings3. While having clear action plans, owners, and target dates may facilitate easier audit follow-up by providing a basis for tracking and reporting the progress and status of the action plans, it does not necessarily guarantee that the action plans will be implemented or effective.
B. It enforces action plan consensus between auditors and auditees is not the primary benefit of an audit approach that requires reported findings to be issued together with related action plans, owners, and target dates, as it is more of a prerequisite or condition for such an approach. Action plan consensus means that the auditors and auditees agree on the audit findings and recommendations, and on the action plans to address them4. While having action plan consensus may enhance the credibility and acceptance of the audit approach, it does not necessarily ensure that the action plans will be implemented or effective.
D. It helps to ensure factual accuracy of findings is not the primary benefit of an audit approach that requires reported findings to be issued together with related action plans, owners, and target dates, as it is more of an outcome or result of such an approach. Factual accuracy of findings means that theaudit findings are based on sufficient, reliable, relevant, and useful evidence5. While having factual accuracy of findings may increase the confidence and trust in the audit approach, it does not necessarily ensure that the action plans will be implemented or effective. References: Accountability - ISACA, Audit Value - ISACA, Audit Follow-up - ISACA, Action Plan Consensus - ISACA, Factual Accuracy of Findings - ISACA

Answer: A
Explanation: An appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program is analyzing risks posed by new regulations. A privacy program is a set of policies, procedures, and controls that aim to protect the personal data of individuals from unauthorized or unlawful collection, use, disclosure, or disposal. A privacy program should comply with the applicable laws and regulations that govern the privacy rights and obligations of individuals and organizations, such as the General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR) or the California Consumer Privacy Act (CCPA). New regulations may introduce new requirements or changes that affect the organization’s privacy program and expose it to potential compliance risks or penalties. Therefore, internal audit can help to establish an organization’s privacy program by analyzing the risks posed by new regulations and providingassurance, advice, or recommendations on how to address them1. The other options are less appropriate or incorrect because:
B. Developing procedures to monitor the use of personal data is not an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program, as it is more of a management or operational role. Internal audit should not be involved in designing or implementing the organization’s privacy program, as it would compromise its independence and objectivity. Internal audit should provide assurance on the effectiveness and efficiency of the organization’s privacy program, but not create or execute it2.
C. Defining roles within the organization related to privacy is not an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program, as it is more of a governance or strategic role. Internal audit should not be involved in setting or approving the organization’s privacy strategy, objectives, or policies, as it would compromise its independence and objectivity. Internal audit should provide assurance on the alignment and compliance ofthe organization’s privacy program with its strategy, objectives, and policies, but not define or approve them2.
D. Designing controls to protect personal data is not an appropriate role of internal audit in helping to establish an organization’s privacy program, as it is more of a management or operational role. Internal audit should not be involved in designing or implementing the organization’s privacy program, as it would compromise its independence and objectivity. Internal audit should provide assurance on the adequacy and effectiveness of the organization’s privacy program, but not design or implement it2. References: ISACA Introduces New Audit Programs for Business Continuity/Disaster …, Best Practices for Privacy Audits - ISACA, ISACA Produces New Audit and Assurance Programs for Data Privacy and …

Answer: C
Explanation: The greatest risk associated with having most users with administrator access to an externally facing system containing sensitive data is that users can make unauthorized changes to the system or the data, which could compromise the integrity, confidentiality, and availability of the system and the data. Users can export application logs, view sensitive data, and install open-licensed software are also risks, but they are not as severe as unauthorized changes. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 4

Answer: A
Explanation: The best evidence that adequate resources are now allocated to successfully recover the systems is a service level agreement (SLA). An SLA is a contract between a service provider and a customer that defines the scope, quality, and terms of the service delivery. An SLA should include measurable and verifiable indicators of the service performance, such as availability, reliability, capacity, security, and recovery. An SLA should also specify the roles, responsibilities, and expectations of both parties, as well as the remedies and penalties for non-compliance. An SLA can help to ensure that the third-party vendor has allocated sufficient hardware and other resources to meet the recovery objectives and requirements of the organization. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: B
Explanation: The first task that an IS auditor should complete during the preliminary planning phase of a database security review is to determine which databases will be in scope. The scope defines the boundaries and objectives of the audit, as well as the resources, time, and budget required. The IS auditor should identify the databases that are relevant to the audit based on factors such as their criticality, risk, complexity, size, type, location, and ownership. The IS auditor should also consider the regulatory, contractual, and organizational requirements that apply to the databases. By defining the scope clearly and accurately, the IS auditor can ensure that the audit is focused, feasible, and effective. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: A
Explanation: The greatest risk of using a reciprocal site for disaster recovery is the inability to utilize the site when required. A reciprocal site is an agreement between two organizations to provide backup facilities for each other in case of a disaster. However, this arrangement may not be reliable or enforceable, especially if both organizations are affected by the same disaster or have conflicting priorities. Therefore,the IS auditor should recommend that management consider alternative options for disaster recovery, such as dedicated sites or cloud services12. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition,page 3381
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: D
Explanation: A mobile device awareness program would best enable an organization to address the security risks associated with a recently implemented bring your own device (BYOD) strategy. A mobile device awareness program is a set of activities that aim to educate and inform the employees about the benefits, challenges, and best practices of using their personal mobile devices for work purposes. A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to:
Communicate the organization’s policies and expectations regarding BYOD, such as which devices are allowed, what data can be accessed or stored, and what security measures are required.
Raise the employees’ awareness of the potential threats and vulnerabilities that affect their mobile devices, such as malware, phishing, data leakage, or device loss.
Provide the employees with guidance and tips on how to protect their mobile devices and the organization’s data, such as using strong passwords, encryption, antivirus software, remote wipe, or VPN.
Encourage the employees to report any incidents or issues related to their mobile devices, such as suspicious messages, unauthorized access, or device damage.
A mobile device awareness program can help the organization to reduce the security risks associated with BYOD by enhancing the employees’ knowledge, skills, and behavior in using their mobile devices securely and responsibly. Amobile device awareness program can also help the organization to comply with relevant regulations and standards that governdata privacy and security in the cloud1.
The other options are not as effective as a mobile device awareness program in enabling an organization to address the security risks associated with BYOD. Option A, mobile device tracking program, is a tool that allows the organization to monitor and locate the employees’ mobile devices in case of loss or theft. However, this tool may not prevent or detect other types of security risks, such as malware infection or data breach. Option B, mobile device upgrade program, is a process that ensures that the employees’ mobile devices are running the latest versions of operating systems and applications. However, this process may not address other aspects of security, such as user behavior or data protection. Option C, mobile device testing program, is a method that verifies the functionality and compatibility of the employees’ mobile devices with the organization’s systems and networks. However, this method may not cover all the scenarios or factors that may affect the security of the mobile devices or the organization’s data2.
References:

Mobile Device Security Awareness Topics3
Security Awareness Top Ten Topics - #8 Mobile Devices

Answer: A
Explanation: A network vulnerability assessment is a process of identifying and evaluating the weaknesses and exposures in a network that could be exploited by attackers to compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the network or its resources. A network vulnerability assessment typically involves scanning the network devices, such as routers, switches, firewalls, servers, and workstations, using automated tools that compare the device configurations, software versions, and patch levels against a database of known vulnerabilities. A network vulnerability assessment can also include manual testing and verification of the network architecture, design, policies, and procedures. One of the main objectives of a network vulnerability assessment is to detect and report any misconfiguration and missing updates in the network devices that could pose a security risk1. Misconfiguration refers to any deviation from the recommended or best practice settings for the network devices, such as weak passwords, open ports, unnecessary services, default accounts, or incorrect permissions. Missing updates refer toany outdated or unsupported software or firmware that has not been patched with the latest security fixes or enhancements from the vendors2. Misconfiguration and missing updates are common sources of network vulnerabilities that can be exploited by attackers to gain unauthorized access, executemalicious code, causedenial of service, or escalate privileges on the network devices3. Therefore, an IS auditor should expect to see misconfiguration and missing updates in a network vulnerability assessment. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
B. Malicious software and spyware are not usually detected by a network vulnerability assessment, as they are more related to the content and behavior of the network traffic rather than the configuration and patch level of the network devices. Malicious software and spyware are programs that infect or monitor the network devices or their users for malicious purposes, such as stealing data, displaying ads, or performing remote commands. Malicious software and spyware can be detected by other security tools, such as antivirus software, firewalls, or intrusion detection systems4.
C. Zero-day vulnerabilities are not usually detected by a network vulnerability assessment, as they are unknown or undisclosed vulnerabilities that have not been reported or patched by the vendors or the security community. Zero-day vulnerabilities are rare and difficult to discover, as they require advanced techniques and skills to exploit them. Zero-day vulnerabilities can be detected by other security tools, such as intrusion prevention systems, anomaly detection systems, or artificial intelligence systems5.
D. Security design flaws are not usually detected by a network vulnerability assessment, as they are more related to the logic and functionality of the network rather than the configuration and patch level of the network devices. Security design flaws are errors or weaknesses in the network architecture, design, policies, or procedures that could compromise the security objectives of the network. Securitydesign flaws can be detected by other security methods, such as security reviews, audits, or assessments6. References: Network VulnerabilityAssessment - ISACA, Network Vulnerability Scanning - NIST, Network Vulnerabilities - SANS, Malware - ISACA, Zero-Day Attacks - ISACA, Security Design Principles - NIST

Answer: C
Explanation: The most reliable follow-up procedure to determine if management has resolved the finding of non-sequential purchase order numbers is to inspect the system settings and transaction logs to determine if sequential order numbers are generated. This will provide direct evidence of the system’s functionality and compliance with the audit recommendation. The other options are less reliable because they rely on indirect evidence or information obtained from management, which may not be accurate or complete. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Standards, Guidelines, Tools and Techniques

Answer: A
Explanation: The greatest challenge to the alignment of business and IT is the lack of chief information officer (CIO) involvement in board meetings. The CIO is the senior executive responsible for overseeing the IT strategy, governance, and operations of the organization, and ensuring that they support the business objectives and needs. The CIO should be involved in board meetings to communicate the value and contribution of IT to the organization, to align the IT vision and direction with the business strategy and priorities, and to advocate for the IT resources and investments required to achieve the desired outcomes. The lack of CIO involvement in board meetings can result in a disconnect between business and IT, a loss of trust and confidence in IT, and missed opportunities for innovation and value creation. The other options are not as challenging as the lack of CIO involvement in board meetings, because they either do not affect the strategic alignment of business and IT, or theycanbe addressed by other means such as collaboration, negotiation, or escalation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1

Answer: A
Explanation: The approach adopted by management in this scenario is risk avoidance. Risk avoidance is the elimination of a risk by discontinuing or not undertaking an activity that poses a threat to the organization3. By moving data center operations to another facility on higher ground, management is avoiding the potential flooding risk that could disrupt or damage the data center. Risk transfer, risk acceptance and risk reduction are other possible approaches for dealing with risks, but they do not apply in this case. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 641
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: B
Explanation: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new automated control is to review the written procedures that define the processes and controls. This will help the IS auditor to understand the objectives, scope, roles, responsibilities, and expected outcomes of the control. The written procedures will also provide a basis for testing the control and verifying its compliance with the audit finding recommendations. References:

ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success
CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

Answer: D
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing contracts for licensed software that executes a critical business process is that software escrow was not negotiated. Software escrow is an arrangement where a third-party holds a copy of the source code and documentation of a licensed software in a secure location. The software escrow agreement specifies the conditions under which the licensee can access the escrowed materials, such as in case of bankruptcy, termination, or breach of contract by the licensor. Software escrow is important for ensuring the continuity and availability of a critical business process that depends on a licensed software. Without software escrow, the licensee may face significant risks and challenges in maintaining, modifying, or recovering the software in case of any disruption or dispute with the licensor. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: D
Explanation: The first step when developing a data loss prevention (DLP) solution for a large organization is to conduct a data inventory and classification exercise. This step is essential to identify the types, locations, owners, and sensitivity levels of the data that need to be protected by the DLP solution. A data inventory and classification exercise helps to define the scope, objectives, and requirements of the DLP solution, as well as to prioritize the data protection efforts based on the business value and risk of the data. A data inventory and classification exercise also enables the organization to comply with relevant laws and regulations regarding data privacy and security.
The other options are not the first step when developing a DLP solution, but rather subsequent steps that depend on the outcome of the data inventory and classification exercise. Identifying approved data workflows across the enterprise is a step that helps to design and implement the DLP policies and controls that match the business processes and data flows. Conducting a threat analysis against sensitive data usage is a step that helps to assess and mitigate the risks associated with data leakage, theft, or misuse. Creating the DLP policies and templates is a step that helps to enforce the data protection rules and standards across the organization.
References:

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition (2019), page 247
Data Loss Prevention—Next Steps - ISACA1
What is data loss prevention (DLP)? | Microsoft Security

Answer: D
Explanation: The most helpful tool in matching demand for projects and services with available resources in a way that supports business objectives is portfolio management. Portfolio management is the process of selecting, prioritizing, balancing and aligning IT projects and services with the strategic goals and value proposition of the organization3. Portfolio management helps the IT organization to allocate resources efficiently and effectively, to deliver value to the business units, and to align IT initiatives with business strategies. Project management, risk assessment results and IT governance framework are also important tools, but they are not as helpful as portfolio management in matching demand and supply of IT projects and services. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 721
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: D
Explanation: The first step in assessing the controls within a newly implemented call center is to evaluate the operational risk associated with the call center. This will help the IS auditor to identify the potential threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect the call center’s objectives, performance, and availability. The evaluation of operational risk will also provide a basis for determining the scope, objectives, and approach of the audit. The other options are possible audit procedures, but they are not the first step in the audit
process. References: ISACA Frameworks: Blueprints for Success, CISA Review Manual (DigitalVersion)

Answer: D
Explanation: Digital watermarks are hidden marks or codes that can be embedded into digital files, such as images, videos, audio, or documents. They can be used to identify the source, owner, or authorized user of the data, as well as to track any unauthorized copying or distribution of the data. Digital watermarks can help prevent data leakage by deterring potential leakers from sharing sensitive data or by providing evidence of data leakage if it occurs.
The other options are not as effective as digital watermarks in preventing data leakage. Ensuring that paper documents are disposed securely can reduce the risk of physical data leakage, but it does not address the digital data leakage that is more prevalent in today’s environment. Implementing an intrusion detection system (IDS) can help detect and respond to cyberattacks that may cause data leakage, but it does not prevent data leakage from insiders or authorized users who have legitimate access to the data. Verifying that application logs capture any changes made can help audit and investigate data leakage incidents, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place.
References:

What is Data Leakage?
What is Digital Watermarking?

Answer: A
Explanation: The best method to determine if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending is earned value analysis (EVA). EVA is a technique that compares the actual cost, schedule, and scope of a project with the planned or budgeted values. EVA can help to measure the project progress and performance, and identify any variances or deviations from the baseline plan1.
EVA uses three basic values to calculate the project status: planned value (PV), earned value (EV), and actual cost (AC). PV is the amount of work that was expected to be completed by a certain date, according to the project plan. EV is the amount of work that was actually completed by that date,measured in terms of the budgeted cost. AC is the amount of money that was actually spent to complete the work by that date1.
By comparing these values, EVA can determine if the project is on track, ahead, or behind schedule and budget. EVA can also calculate various indicators, such as cost variance (CV), schedule variance (SV), cost performance index (CPI), and schedule performance index (SPI), to quantify the magnitude and direction of the variances. EVA can also forecast the future performanceand completion of the project, based on the current trends and assumptions1.
The other options are not as effective as EVA in determining if IT resource spending is aligned with planned project spending. Option B, return on investment (ROI) analysis, is a technique that evaluates the profitability or efficiency of an investment, by comparing the benefits or revenues with the costs. ROI analysis can help to justify or prioritize a project, but it does not measure the actual progress or performance of the project against the plan2. Option C, Gantt chart, is a tool that displays the tasks, durations, dependencies, and milestones of a project in a graphical format. Gantt chart can help to plan and monitor a project schedule, but it does not show the actual cost or scope of the project3. Option D, critical path analysis, is a technique that identifies the longest sequence of tasks or activities that must be completed on time for the project to finish on schedule. Critical path analysis can help to optimize and control a project schedule, but it does not account for the actual cost or scope of the project4.
References:

Earned Value Analysis & Management (EVA/EVM) – Definition& Formulae1
Return on Investment (ROI) Formula2
What Is a Gantt Chart?3
Critical Path Method for Project Management

Answer: B
Explanation: The primary role of a control self-assessment (CSA) facilitator is to focus the team on internal controls. A CSA facilitator is a person who guides the CSA process and helps the participants to identify, assess, and improve their internal controls. The facilitator does not conduct interviews, report on weaknesses, or provide solutions, as these are the responsibilities of the participants themselves1.
The other options are incorrect because they are not the primary role of a CSA facilitator. Option A, conduct interviews to gain background information, is a preliminary step that may be done by the facilitator or the participants before the CSA session, but it is not the main purpose of the facilitator. Option C, report on the internal control weaknesses, is an outcome of the CSA process that should be done by the participants who own and operate the controls. Option D, provide solutions for control weaknesses, is also an outcome of the CSA process that should be done by the participants who are in charge of implementing the improvements.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, page 2822
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, QID 1066693
PwC, Control Self Assessments4
Workiva, 4factors of an effective control self-assessment (CSA) program5

Answer: D
Explanation: Segregation of duties (SoD) is a key internal control that aims to prevent fraud and errors by ensuring that no single individual can perform incompatible or conflicting tasks within a business process. SoD reduces the risk of unauthorized or improper transactions, manipulation of data, or misappropriation of assets.
In the accounts payable department, SoD involves separating the following functions: invoice processing, payment authorization, payment execution, and reconciliation. For example, the person who approves an invoice should not be the same person who issues the payment or reconciles the bank statement.
One of the best ways to ensure appropriate SoD within the accounts payable department is to restrict program functionality according to user security profiles. This means that each user of the accounts payable system should have a unique login and password, and should only have access to the functions that are relevant to their role and responsibilities. For instance, an invoice processor should not be able to approve payments or modify vendor records. This way, the system can enforce SoD and prevent unauthorized or fraudulent activities.
The other options are not as effective as restricting program functionality according to user security profiles. Restricting access to update programs to accounts payable staff only is a general access control measure, but it does not address the SoD issue within the accounts payable department. Including the creator’s user ID as a field in every transaction record created is a useful audit trail feature, but it does not prevent users from performing incompatible functions. Ensuring that audit trails exist for transactions is a detective control that can help identify and investigate any irregularities, but it does not prevent them from occurring in the first place.

Answer: C
Explanation: Linking incidents to problem management activities would most effectively help to reduce the number of repeated incidents in an organization, because problem management aims to identify and eliminate the root causes of incidents and prevent their recurrence. Testing incident response plans, prioritizing incidents, and training incident management teams are all good practices, but they do not directly address the issue of repeated incidents. References: ISACA ITAF 3rd Edition Section 3600

Answer: B
Explanation: Periodically reviewing log files is the most effective way to detect intrusion attempts from outside the organization, as they can provide evidence of unauthorized access attempts, source IP addresses, timestamps and other relevant information. Using smart cards with one-time passwords or installing biometrics-based authentication can prevent unauthorized access, but not detect it. Configuring the router as a firewall can block unwanted traffic, but not log it. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 361

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest risk associated with the situation of business units purchasing cloud-based applications without IT support is that the applications may not reasonably protect data. Cloud-based applications are software applications that run on the internet, rather than on a local device or network. Cloud-based applications offer manybenefits, such as scalability, accessibility, and cost-effectiveness, but they also pose many challenges and risks, especially for data security1.
Data security is the process of protecting data from unauthorized access, use, modification, disclosure, or destruction. Data security is essential for ensuring the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data, as well as complying with legal and regulatory requirements. Data security is especially important for cloud-based applications, as data are stored and processed on remote servers that are owned and managed by third-party cloud service providers (CSPs)2.
When business units purchase cloud-based applications without IT support, they may not be aware of or follow the best practices and standards for data security in the cloud. They may not performadequate risk assessments, vendor evaluations, contract reviews, or audits to ensure that the CSPs and the applications meet the organization’s data security policies and expectations. They may not implement appropriate data encryption, backup, recovery, or disposal methods to protect the data in transit and at rest. They may not monitor or control the access and usage of the data by internal or external users. They may not report or respond to any data breaches or incidents that may occur3.
These actions or inactions may expose the organization’s data to various threats and vulnerabilities in the cloud, such as cyberattacks, human errors, malicious insiders, misconfigurations, or legal disputes. These threats and vulnerabilities may result in data loss, leakage, corruption, or compromise, which may have serious consequences for theorganization’s reputation, operations, performance, compliance, and liability4.
Therefore, it is essential that business units consult and collaborate with IT support before purchasing any cloud-based applications, and follow the organization’s guidelines and procedures for cloud security. IT support can help business units to select and use cloud-based applications that are suitable and secure for their needs and objectives. References:

Top 5 Risks With Cloud Software and How to Mitigate Them4
Mitigate risksand secure your cloud-native applications3
12 Risks, Threats & Vulnerabilities in Moving to the Cloud2
Best Practices to Manage Risks in the Cloud1

Answer: C
Explanation: The associated risk of mobile computing that an IS auditor should identify during the planning phase of a data loss prevention (DLP) audit is increased vulnerability due to anytime, anywhere accessibility. Mobile computing refers to the use of portable devices, such as laptops, tablets, smartphones, or wearable devices, that can access data and applications over wireless networks from any location6. Mobile computing enables greater flexibility, productivity, and convenience for users, but also poses significant security challenges for organizations. One of these challenges is increased vulnerability due to anytime, anywhere accessibility. This means that mobile devices are exposed to a higher risk of loss, theft, damage, or unauthorized access than stationary devices7. If mobile devices contain oraccess sensitive data withoutproper protection, such asencryption or authentication, they could result in data leakage or breach in case of compromise8. Therefore, an IS auditor should identify this risk as part of a DLP audit. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
A. The use of cloud negatively impacting IT availability is not an associated risk of mobile computing that an IS auditor should identify during the planning phase of a DLP audit, as it is more related to cloud computing than mobile computing. Cloud computing refers to the delivery of computing services, such as data storage or processing, over the Internet from remote servers. Cloud computing may enable or support mobile computing by providing access to data and applications from any device or location, but it does not necessarily imply mobile computing. The use of cloud may negatively impact IT availability if there are disruptions or outages in the cloud service provider’s network or infrastructure, but this is not a direct consequence of mobile computing.
B. Increased need for user awareness training is not an associated risk of mobile computing that an IS auditor should identify during the planning phase of a DLP audit, as it is more of a control or mitigation measure than a risk. User awareness training refers to educating users about security policies, procedures, and best practices for using mobile devices and protecting data. User awareness training may help to reduce the risk of data loss or breach due to mobile computing by increasing user knowledge and responsibility, but it does not eliminate or prevent the risk.
D. Lack of governance and oversight for IT infrastructure and applications is not an associated risk of mobile computing that an IS auditor should identify during the planning phase of a DLP audit, as it is more of a general or organizational risk than a specific or technical risk. Governance and oversight refer to the establishment and implementation of policies, standards, and procedures for managing IT resources and aligning them with business objectives. Lack of governance and oversight for IT infrastructure and applications may affect the security and performance of mobile devices and data, but it is not a direct or inherent result of mobile computing. References: Mobile Computing - ISACA, Mobile Computing Device Threats, Vulnerabilities and Risk Factors Are Ubiquitous - ISACA, Data Loss Prevention—Next Steps -ISACA, [Cloud Computing - ISACA], [Cloud Computing Risk Assessment - ISACA], [User Awareness Training - ISACA], [Governance and Oversight - ISACA]

Answer: A
Explanation: The best reason to implement a data retention policy is to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information. A data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept by an organization and how they should be disposed of when they are no longer needed. A data retention policy should comply with the applicable laws and regulations that govern the data retention requirements and obligations of organizations, such as tax laws, privacy laws, or industry standards4. Implementing a data retention policy can help to limit the liability associated with storing and protecting information by reducing the amount of data that need to be stored and secured, minimizing the risk of data breaches or leaks, ensuringcompliance with legal or contractual obligations, and avoiding potential fines or penalties for non-compliance5. The other options are less relevant or incorrect because:
B. Documenting business objectives for processing data within the organization is not a reason to implement a data retention policy, as it is more related to data governance than data retention. Data governance refers to the policies, procedures, and controls that define how data are collected, used, managed, and shared within an organization. Data governance helps to ensure that data are aligned with business objectives and support decision making6.
C. Assigning responsibility and ownership for data protection outside IT is not a reason to implement a data retention policy, as it is more related to data accountability than data retention. Data accountability refers to the identification and assignment of roles and responsibilities for data protection among different stakeholders within an organization. Data accountability helps to ensure that data are handled appropriately and securely by authorized parties7.
D. Establishing a recovery point objective (RPO) for disaster recovery procedures is not a reason to implement a data retention policy, as it is more related to data backup than data retention. Data backup refers to the process of creating copies of data that can be restored in case of data loss or corruption. Data backup helps to ensure that data are available and recoverable in case of disaster8. RPO is a measure of the maximum amount of data that canbe lost or acceptable in case of disaster9. References: Data Retention Policy - ISACA, Data Retention - ISACA, Data Governance - ISACA, Data Accountability - ISACA, Data Backup - ISACA, Recovery Point Objective - ISAC

Answer: B
Explanation: Developing a risk-based plan considering each entity’s business processes would best help to ensure that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan. A risk-based plan is a plan that prioritizes the audit activities based on the level of risk associated with each area or process. A risk-based plan can help to allocate the audit resources more efficiently and effectively, and provide more assurance and value to the stakeholders1.
By considering each entity’s business processes, the IS audit can identify and assess the specific risks and controls that affect the IT environment of each entity, and tailor the audit objectives, scope,and procedures accordingly. This can help to address the unique needs and expectations of eachentity, and ensure that the IS audit covers the key risk areas that are relevant and significant to each entity’s operations, performance, and compliance2. The other options are not as effective as developing a risk-based plan considering each entity’s business processes in ensuring that IS audit still covers key risk areas within the IT environment as part of its annual plan. Option A, increasing the frequency of risk-based IS audits for each business entity, is not a feasible or efficient solution, as it may increase the audit costs and workload, and create duplication or overlap of audit efforts. Option C, conducting an audit of newly introduced IT policies and procedures, is a limited and narrow approach, as it may not cover all the aspects or dimensions of the IT environment that may have changed or been affected by the split. Option D, revising IS audit plans to focus on IT changes introduced after the split, is a reactive and short-term approach, as it may not reflect the current or future state of the IT environment or the business objectives of each entity.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
Risk-Based Audit Planning: A Guide for Internal Audit1
Risk-Based Audit Approach: Definition & Example

Answer: C
Explanation: An IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment for a data center would be most concerned if the exercise was completed by local management, because this could introduce bias, conflict of interest, or lack of expertise in the assessment process. A threat assessment is a systematic method of identifying and evaluating the potential threats that could affect the availability, integrity, or confidentiality of the data center and its assets. A threat assessmentshould be conducted by an independent and qualified team that has the necessary skills, knowledge, and experience to perform a comprehensive and objective analysis of the data center’s environment, vulnerabilities, and risks1.
The other options are not as concerning as option C for an IS auditor reviewing the threat assessment for a data center. Option A, some of the identified threats are unlikely to occur, is not a problem as long as the likelihood and impact of each threat are properly estimated and prioritized. A threat assessment should consider all possible scenarios, even if they have a low probability of occurrence, to ensure that the data center is prepared for any eventuality2. Option B, all identified threats relate to external entities, is not a flaw as long as the assessment also considers internal threats, such as human errors, malicious insiders, or equipment failures. External threats are often more visible and severe than internal threats, butthey are not the only source of risk for a data center3. Option D, neighboring organizations’ operations have been included, is not a mistake as long as the assessment also focuses on the data center’s own operations. Neighboring organizations’ operations may have an impact on the data center’s security and availability, especially if they share physical or network infrastructure or resources. A threat assessmentshould take into account the interdependencies and interactions between the data center and its external environment4.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
Data Center Threats and Vulnerabilities1
Datacenter threat, vulnerability, and risk assessment2
Data Centre Risk Assessment3

Answer: A
Explanation: The most important thing for an IS auditor to confirm when reviewing an organization’s plans to implement robotic process automation (RPA) to automate routine business tasks is that the end-to-end process is understood and documented. This is because RPA involves the use of software robots or digital workers to mimic human actions and execute predefined rules and workflows. Therefore, it is essential that the IS auditor verifies that the organization has a clear and accurate understanding of the current state of the process, the desired state of the process, the inputs and outputs, the exceptions and errors, the roles and responsibilities, and the performance measures12. Without a properdocumentation of the end-to-end process, the organizationmay face challenges in designing, developing, testing, deploying, and monitoring the RPA solution3. References: 1: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Section 4.2: IT Service Delivery and Support, page 211 2:CISA Online Review Course, Module 4: Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience, Lesson 4.2: IT Service Delivery and Support 3: ISACA Journal Volume 5, 2019, Article: Robotic Process Automation: Benefits, Risks and Controls

Answer: B
Explanation: The most important consideration for an IS auditor when assessing the adequacy of an organization’s information security policy is the business objectives. An information security policy is a document that defines the organization’s approach to protecting its information assets from internal and external threats. It should align with the organization’s mission, vision, values, and goals, and support its business processes and functions1. An informationsecurity policy should also be focused on the business needs and requirements of the organization, rather than on technical details orspecific solutions2.
The other options are not as important as the business objectives, because they do not directly reflect the organization’s purpose and direction. IT steering committee minutes are records of the discussions and decisions made by a group of senior executives who oversee the IT strategy and governance of the organization. They may provide some insights into the information security policy, but they are not sufficientto evaluate its adequacy3. Alignment with the IT tactical plan is a measure of how well the information security policy supports the short-term actions and projects that implement the IT strategy. However, the IT tactical plan itself shouldbe aligned with the business objectives, and not vice versa4. Compliance with industry best practice is a desirable quality of an information security policy, but it is not a guarantee of its effectiveness or suitability for the organization. Industry best practices are general guidelines or recommendations that may not apply to every organization or situation. An information security policy should be customized and tailored to the specific context and needs of the organization. References:

The 12 Elements of an Information Security Policy | Exabeam1
11 Key Elements of an Information Security Policy | Egnyte2
What is an IT steering committee? Definition, roles & responsibilities …3
What is IT Strategy? Definition, Components & Best Practices | BMC …4
IT Security Policy: Key Components & Best Practices for Every Business

Answer: A
Explanation: The best way to help management understand the associated risk of missing backup cycles due to operator error and lack of exception management is to explain the impact to disaster recovery. Disaster recovery is the process of restoring normal operations and functions after a disruptive event, such as a natural disaster, a cyberattack, or a hardware failure. Backup cycles are essential for disaster recovery, because they ensure that the organization has copies of its critical data and systems that can be restored in case of data loss or corruption. If backup cycles are missed due to operator error, and these exceptions are not managed, the organization may not have the latest or complete backups available for disaster recovery, which can result in prolonged downtime, reduced productivity, lost revenue, reputational damage, and legal or regulatory penalties. The other options are not as effective as explaining the impact to disaster recovery, because they either do not address the risk of data loss or corruption, or they focus on operational or technical aspects rather than business outcomes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.1

Answer: C
Explanation: The primary objective of an IS auditor when reviewing the installation of a new server is to ensure that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies. Security parameters are settingsor options that control the security level and behavior of the server, such as authentication methods, encryption algorithms, access rights, audit logs, firewall rules, or password policies7. The organization’s policies are documents that define the security goals, requirements, standards, and guidelines for the organization’s information systems. An IS auditor should verify that security parameters are set in accordance with the organization’s policies to ensure that the new server complies with the organization’s security expectations and regulations. The other options are less important or incorrect because:
A. Security parameters should not be set in accordance with the manufacturer’s standards alone, as they may not reflect the organization’s specific security needs and environment. The manufacturer’s standards are general recommendations or best practices for configuring the server’s security parameters based on common scenarios and threats. An IS auditor should compare the manufacturer’s standards with the organization’s policies and identify any gaps or conflicts that need to be resolved.
B. A detailed business case should have been formally approved prior to the purchase of a new server rather than during its installation. A business case is a document that justifies the need for a new server based on its expected benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. A business case should be approved by senior management before initiating a project to acquire a new server.
D. The procurement project should have invited tenders from at least three different suppliers before purchasing a new server rather than during its installation. A tender is a formal offer or proposal to provide a product or service at a specified price and quality. Inviting tenders from multiple suppliers helps to ensure a fair and competitive procurement process that can result in the best value for money and quality for the organization. References: Server Security - ISACA, [Information Security Policy - ISACA], [Server Hardening - ISACA], [Business Case - ISACA], [Tender - ISACA], [Procurement Management - ISACA]

Answer: D
Explanation: The first thing that an IS auditor should do when management responses to an in-person internal control questionnaire indicate a key internal control is no longer effective is to ascertain the existence of other compensating controls. Compensating controls are alternative controls that provide reasonable assurance of achieving the same objective as the original control. The IS auditor should verify whether there are any compensating controls in place that can mitigate the risk of the key control being ineffective, and evaluate their adequacy and effectiveness. The other options are not the first steps, because theyeither require more information about the compensating controls, or they are actions to be taken after identifying and assessing the compensating controls. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 2, Section 2.2.3

Answer: B
Explanation: One of the challenges in developing a SLA for network services is finding performance metrics that can be measured properly and reflect the quality of service expected by the customer. Establishing a well-designed framework for network services is not a challenge, but a good practice. Ensuring that network components are not modified by the client or reducing the number of entry points into the network are security issues, not SLA issues. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 333

Answer: D
Explanation: The finding that should be the IS auditor’s greatest concern is that the data model is not clearly documented. A data model is a representation of the structure, relationships, and constraints of the data used by an application. It is a vital component of the software development process, as it helps to ensure the accuracy, consistency, and quality of the data1. A clear and comprehensive documentation of the data model is essential for the maintenance and support of the application, as it facilitates the understanding, modification, and troubleshooting of the data and the application logic2.
If the organization plans to bring the support and future maintenance of the application back in-house, it will need to have access to the data model documentation from the vendor. Without it, the organization may face difficulties in transferring the knowledge and skills from the vendor to the in-house team, as well as in adapting and enhancing the application to meet changing businessneeds and requirements3. The lack of data model documentation may also increase therisk of errors, inconsistencies, and inefficiencies in the data and the application performance2.
The other findings are not as concerning as the lack of data model documentation, because they do not directly affect the quality and maintainability of the application. The cost of outsourcing is lowerthan in-house development is a benefit rather than a risk for the organization, as it implies that outsourcing has helped to save time and money for the organization4. The vendor development team is located overseas is a common practice in outsourcing, and it does not necessarily imply a lower quality or a higher risk of the application. However, it may pose some challenges in terms of communication, coordination, and cultural differences, which can bemanaged by establishing clear expectations, roles, and responsibilities, as well as using effective tools and methods for communication and collaboration5. A training plan for business users has not been developed is a gap that should be addressed by the organization before deploying the application, as it may affect the user acceptance and satisfaction of the application. However, it does not directly impact the quality or maintainability of the application itself. References:

What is Data Modeling? Definition & Types | Informatica1
Data Modeling Best Practices: Documentation | erwin2
Data Model Documentation - an overview |ScienceDirect Topics3
Outsourcing App Development Pros and Cons – Droids On Roids4
8 Risks of Software Development Outsourcing & Their Solutions - Acropolium5
Software Training Plan: How to Create One for Your Business - Elinex

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to ensure that potential security issues are considered by the development team as part of incremental changes to agile-developed software is to include a mandatory step to analyze the security impact when making changes. This will help to identify and mitigate any security risks or vulnerabilities that may arise from the changes, and to ensure that the software meets the security requirements and standards. The other options are not as effective, because they either delegate the security analysis to someone outside the development team, rely on post-deployment testing, or focus on documentation rather than analysis. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.5

Answer: B
Explanation: The auditor’s primary concern when capacity management for a key system is being performed by IT with no input from the business would be an unanticipated increase in business’s capacity needs. This could result in performance degradation, service disruption or customer dissatisfaction if IT is not able to provide sufficient capacity to meet the business demand. Failure to maximize the use of equipment, cost of excessive data center storage capacity or impact to future business project funding are secondary concerns that relate to resource optimization or budget allocation, but not to service delivery or customer satisfaction. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 374

Answer: B
Explanation: A system electronic log is the most useful source of information for an IS auditor to review all access attempts to a video-monitored and proximity card-controlled communications room. A system electronic log can provide accurate and detailed records of the date, time, card number, and status (success or failure) of each access attempt. A system electronic log can also be easily searched, filtered, and analyzed by the auditor to identify any unauthorized or suspicious access attempts.
A manual sign-in and sign-out log is not as reliable or useful as a system electronic log, because it depends on the honesty and compliance of the users. A manual log can be easily manipulated, forged, or omitted by the users or intruders. A manual log also does not capture the status of each access attempt, and it can be difficult to verify the identity of the users based on their signatures.
An alarm system with CCTV is not as useful as a system electronic log, because it only captures the events that trigger the alarm, such as unauthorized or forced entry. An alarm system with CCTV does not provide a complete record of all access attempts, and it can be affected by factors such as camera angle, lighting, and resolution. An alarm system with CCTV also requires more time and effort to review the video footage by the auditor.
A security incident log is not as useful as a system electronic log, because it only records the incidents that are reported by the users or detected by the security staff. A security incident log does not provide a comprehensive record of all access attempts, and it can be incomplete or inaccurate depending on the reporting and detection mechanisms. A security incident log also does not capture the details of each access attempt, such as the card number and status. References:

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition (2019), page 247
ISACA CISA Certified Information Systems Auditor Exam … - PUPUWEB

Answer: B
Explanation: The primary purpose of documenting audit objectives when preparing for an engagement is to identify areas with relatively high probability of material problems. Audit objectives are statements that describe what the audit intends to accomplish or verify during the engagement. Audit objectives help the IS auditor to focus on the key areas of risk or concern, to design appropriate audit procedures and tests, and to evaluate audit evidence and results. By documenting audit objectives, the IS auditor can identify areas with relatively high probability of material problems that may affect the achievement of audit goals or business objectives. Addressing the overall risk associated with the activity under review, ensuring maximum use of audit resources during the engagement and prioritizing and scheduling auditee meetings are also purposes of documenting audit objectives, but they are not as primary as identifying areas with high probability of material problems. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 1111
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: D
Explanation: The first step that the organization should take to ensure that only the corporate network is used for downloading business data is to include a statement in its security policy about Internet use. A security policy is a document that defines the rules, expectations, and overall approach that an organization uses to maintain the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of its data1. A security policy should clearly state the acceptable and unacceptable use of Internet resources, such as personalaccounts with ISPs, and the consequences of violating the policy. A security policy also helps to guide the implementation of technical controls, such as proxy servers, firewalls, or monitoring tools, that can enforce the policy and prevent or detect unauthorized Internet access.
The other options are not the first step that the organization should take, but rather subsequent or complementary steps that depend on the security policy. Using a proxy server to filter out Internet sites that should not be accessed is a technical control that can help implement the security policy, but it does not address the root cause of why users are using personal accounts with ISPs. Keeping a manual log of Internet access is a monitoring technique that can help audit the compliance with the security policy, but it does not prevent or deter users from using personal accounts with ISPs. Monitoring remote access activities is another monitoring technique that can help detect unauthorized Internet access, but it does not specify what constitutes unauthorized access or how to respond to it.
References:

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition (2019), page 247
What is a Security Policy? Definition, Elements, and Examples - Varonis1

Answer: B
Explanation: The best way to mitigate the risk associated with unintentional modifications of complex calculations in end-user computing (EUC) is to execute copies of EUC programs out of a secure library. This will ensure that the original EUC programs are protected from unauthorized changes and that thecopies are run in a controlled environment. A secure library is a repository of EUC programs that have been tested, validated, and approved by the appropriate authority. Executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library can also help with version control, backup, and recovery of EUC programs. Having an independent party review the source calculations, implementing complex password controls, and verifying EUC results through manual calculations are not as effective as executing copies of EUC programs out of a secure library, as they do not prevent or detect unintentional modifications of complex calculations in EUC. References: End-User Computing (EUC) Risks: A Comprehensive Guide, End User Computing (EUC) Risk Management

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to enforce the principle of least privilege on a server containing data with different security classifications is to apply access controls determined by the data owner. The principle of least privilege states that users should only have the minimum level of access required to perform their tasks. The data owner is the person who has the authority and responsibility to classify, label, and protect the data according to its sensitivity and value. The data owner can define the access rightsand permissions for each user or role based on the data classification policy and the business needs. This will ensure that only authorized and appropriate users can access the data and prevent unauthorized or excessive access that could compromise the confidentiality, integrity, or availability of the data. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: A
Explanation: The finding that should be ranked as the highest risk is that network penetration tests are not performed. Network penetration tests are simulated cyberattacks that aim to identify and exploit the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the network security controls, such as firewalls, routers, switches, servers, and devices. Network penetration tests are essential for assessing the effectiveness and resilience of the network security posture, and for providing recommendations for improvement and remediation. If network penetration tests are not performed, the organization may not be aware of the existing or potential threats and risks to its network, and may not be able to prevent or respond to real cyberattacks, which can result in data breaches, service disruptions, financial losses, reputational damage, and legal or regulatory penalties. The other findings are also important, butnot as risky as the lack of network penetration tests, because they either do not directly affect the networksecurity controls, or they can be addressed by documentation or approval processes. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4

Answer: B
Explanation: The best way to ensure data integrity across system interfaces is to perform reconciliation. Reconciliation is the process of comparing and verifying the data from different sources or systems to ensure that they are consistent, accurate, and complete. Reconciliation can help to identify and resolve any discrepancies, errors, or anomalies in the data that could affect the quality, reliability, or validity of the information. Reconciliation can also help to detect and prevent any unauthorized or fraudulent data manipulation or modification. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: B
Explanation: Data classification is the process of organizing data into categories based on its sensitivity, value, and risk to the organization. Data classification helps to ensure that data is protected according to its importance and regulatory requirements. Data classification also enables data owners to make informed decisions about data access, retention, and disposal. To implement a data classification program, it is most important to formalize data ownership. Data owners are the individuals or business units that have the authority and responsibility for the data they create or use. Data owners should be involved in defining the data classification levels, assigning the appropriate classification to their data, and ensuring that the data is handled according to the established policies and procedures. Data owners should also review and update the data classification periodically or when there are changes in the data or its usage.
The other options are not as important as formalizing data ownership when implementing a data classification program. Understanding the data classification levels is necessary, but it is not sufficient without identifying the data owners who will apply them. Developing a privacy policy is a good practice, but it is not specific to data classification. Planning for secure storage capacity is a technical consideration, but it does not address the business and legal aspects of data classification.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2020, page 247
Data Classification: What It Is and Howto Implement It

Answer: C
Explanation: The most effective way for an organization to help ensure agreed-upon action plans from an IS audit will be implemented is to ensure ownership is assigned. This means that the management of the audited area should accept responsibility for implementing the action plans and report on their progress and completion to the audit committee or senior management. This will ensure accountability, commitment, and follow-up for the audit recommendations34. References: 3: CISA ReviewManual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.6: Reporting, page 41 4: CISA Online Review Course, Module 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Lesson 1.6: Reporting

Answer: C
Explanation: This means that the organization should obtain the source code from the escrow agent and compare it with the current version of the application that they are using. The organization should then identify and apply any changes or updates that are missing or different in the escrow version, so that it matches the current version. This way, the organization can ensure that they have a complete and accurate copy of the source code that reflects their current needs and requirements.
Bringing the escrow version up to date can help the organization to avoid or reduce the risks and costs associated with using an outdated or incompatible version of the source code. For example, an older version of the source code may have bugs, errors, or vulnerabilities that could affect the functionality, security, or performance of the application. An older version of the source code mayalso lack some features, enhancements, or integrations that could improve the usability, efficiency, or value of the application. An older version of the source code may also not comply with some standards, regulations, or contracts that could affect the quality, reliability, or legality of the application1.
The other options are not as good as bringing the escrow version up to date for the organization. Option A, analyzing a new application that meets the current requirements, is a possible option but it may be more time-consuming, expensive, and risky than updating the existing application. The organization may have to go through a complex and lengthy process of selecting, acquiring, implementing, testing, and migrating to a new application, which could disrupt their operations and performance. The organization may also have to deal with compatibility, interoperability, or data quality issues when switching to a new application2. Option B, performing an analysis to determine the business risk, is a necessary step but not a recommendation for the organization. The organization should already be aware of the business risk of using an application whose vendor has gone out of business and whose escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization should focus on finding and implementing a solution to mitigate or eliminate this risk3. Option D, developing a maintenance plan to support the application using the existing code, is not a feasible option because it assumes that the organization has access to the existing code. However, this is not the case because the vendor has gone out of business and the escrow has an older version of the source code. The organization cannot support or maintain an application without having a complete and accurate copy of its source code.
References:

How Important Is Source Code Escrow - ISACA1
The What and Why of Source Code Escrow2
Unlocking Source Code In Escrow 2023: A Guide To Secure Software3

Answer: B
Explanation: Partitioning the work environment from personal space on devices. This would best maintain information security without compromising employee privacy by creating a separate and secure area on the personal mobile devices for work-related data and applications. This way, the organization can protect its information from unauthorized access, loss, or leakage, while respecting the employees’ personal data and preferences on their own devices. The other options are not as effective as option B in balancing information security and employee privacy. Option A, installing security software on the devices, is a good practice but may not be sufficient to prevent data breaches or comply with regulatory requirements. Option C, preventing users from adding applications, is too restrictive and may interfere with the employees’ personal use of their devices. Option D, restricting the use of devices for personal purposes during working hours, is impractical and difficult to enforce.
References:
ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
Personal Cellphone Privacy at Work1
Protecting your personal information and privacy on a company phone2
Mobile Devices and Protected Health Information (PHI)3
Using your personal phone for work? Here’s how to separate yourapps and data4
9 Ways to Improve Mobile Security and Privacy in the Age of Remote Work5

Answer: B
Explanation: The first thing that should be performed before key performance indicators (KPIs) can be implemented is the identification of organizational goals. This is because KPIs are measurable values that demonstrate how effectively an organization is achieving its key business objectives4. Therefore, it is necessary that the organization defines its goals clearly and aligns them with its vision, mission, and strategy. By identifying its goals, the organization can then determine what KPIs are relevant and meaningful to measure its progress and performance . References: 4: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 2: Governance and Management of IT, Section 2.3: Benefits Realization, page 77 : CISA Online Review Course, Module 2: Governance and Management of IT, Lesson 2.3: Benefits Realization : ISACA Journal Volume 1, 2020, Article: How to Measure Anything in IT Governance

Answer: A
Explanation: In a controlled application development environment, the most important segregation of duties should be between the person who implements changes into the production environment and the application programmer. This segregation of duties ensures that no one person can create and deploy code without proper review, testing, and approval. This reduces the risk of errors, fraud, or malicious code being introduced into the production environment. The other options are not as important as the segregation between the application programmer and the person who implements changes into production, but they are still relevant for achieving a secure and reliable application development environment. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the systems programmer is important to prevent unauthorized or untested changes to system software or configuration. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the computer operator is important to prevent unauthorized or uncontrolled access to production data or resources. The segregation of duties between the person who implements changes into production and the quality assurance (QA) personnel is important to ensure independent verification and validation of code quality and functionality.
References:

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition (2019), page 247
Segregation of Duties in an Agile Environment | AKF Partners3
Separation of Duties: How to Conform in a DevOps World4

Answer: B
Explanation: Problem management is an IT service management activity that is most likely to help with identifying the root cause of repeated instances of network latency. Problem management involves analyzing incidents that affect IT services and finding solutions to prevent them from recurring or minimize their impact. Change management is an IT service management activity that involves controlling and documenting any modifications to IT services or infrastructure. Incident management is an IT service management activity that involves restoring normal service operation as quickly as possible after an incident has occurred.
Configuration management is an IT service management activity that involves identifying and maintaining records of IT assets and their relationships. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 334

Answer: B
Explanation: Data disposal controls are the measures that ensure that data are securely and permanently erased or destroyed when they are no longer needed or authorized to be retained. Data disposal controls support business strategic objectives by reducing the risk of data breaches, complying with dataprivacy regulations, optimizing the use of storage resources, and enhancing the reputation and trust of the organization1.
A media sanitization policy is a document that defines the roles, responsibilities, procedures, and standards for sanitizing different types of media that contain sensitive or confidential data. Media sanitization is the process of removing or modifying data on a media device to make it unreadable or unrecoverable by any means. Media sanitization can be achieved by various methods, such as overwriting, degaussing, encryption, or physical destruction2.
A media sanitization policy would provide an IS auditor with the greatest assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives because it demonstrates that the organization has a clear and consistent approach to protect its data from unauthorized access or disclosure throughout the data life cycle. Amedia sanitization policy also helps the organization to comply with various data privacy regulations, such as the EU General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR), the US Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA), or the Payment Card Industry Data Security Standard (PCI DSS), that require proper disposal of personal or sensitive data3.
The other options are not as effective as a media sanitization policy in providing assurance that data disposal controls support business strategic objectives. A media recycling policy is a document that defines the criteria and procedures for reusing media devices that have been sanitized or erased. A media recycling policy can help the organization to save costsand reduce environmental impact, but it does not address how the data are disposed of in the first place4. A media labeling policy is a document that defines the rules and standards for labeling media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media labeling policy can help the organization to identify and classify its data assets, but it does not specify how the data are sanitized or destroyed when they are no longer needed. A media shredding policy is a document that defines the methods and procedures for physically destroying media devices that contain sensitive or confidential data. A media shredding policy can be a part of a media sanitization policy, but it is not sufficient to cover all types of media devices or data disposal scenarios. References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
Secure Data Disposal and Destruction: 6 Methods to Follow1
Why (and How to) Dispose of Digital Data2
What is Data Disposition? The Complete Guide3
Data Disposition: What is it and why should it be part of your data retention policy?

Answer: C
Explanation: The best control to mitigate attacks that redirect Internet traffic to an unauthorized website is to perform domain name system (DNS) server security hardening. DNS servers are responsible for resolving domain names into IP addresses, and they are often targeted by attackers who want to manipulate or spoof DNS records to redirect usersto malicious websites4. By applying security best practices to DNS servers, such as encrypting DNS traffic, implementing DNSSEC, restricting access and updating patches, the organization can reduce the risk of DNS hijacking attacks. A network-based firewall, user security awareness training and a strong password policy are also important controls, but they are not as effective as DNS server security hardening in preventing this specific type of attack. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 4021
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Answer: B
Explanation: An IS auditor should be concerned because deleting the files logically does not overwrite the files’ physical data. Deleting a file from a hard disk only removes the reference or pointer to the file from the file system, but does not erase the actual data stored on the disk sectors. The deleted data can still be recovered using special tools or techniques until it is overwritten by new data. This poses a risk of data leakage, theft, or misuse if the hard disk falls into the wrong hands. To securely dispose of a system containing sensitive data, the hard disk should be wiped or sanitized using methods that overwrite or destroy the physical data beyond recovery. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: C
Explanation: The finding that should be of greatest concern to the IS auditor is that user accounts are shared between users. User accounts are unique identifiers that grant access to an organization’s financial business application based on the roles and responsibilities of the users. User accounts should be individualized and personalized to ensure accountability, traceability, and auditability of user actions and transactions. User accounts should not be shared between users, because this can compromise the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of the financial data and systems, and can enable unauthorized or fraudulent activities. If user accounts are shared between users, the IS auditor may not be able to determine who performed what action or transaction, or whether the user had the appropriate authorization or approval. The other findings are also concerning, but not as much as user account sharing, because they either affect the password strength or frequency rather than the useridentity, or they relate to monitoring rather than controlling user access. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2

Answer: A
Explanation: The most efficient way to identify segregation of duties violations in a new system is to review a report of security rights in the system. Segregation of duties is a control principle that aims to prevent or detect errors, fraud, or abuse by ensuring that no single individual has the ability to perform incompatible or conflicting functions or activities within a system or process. A report of security rights in the system can provide a comprehensive and accurate overview of the roles, responsibilities, and access levels assigned to different users or groups in the system, and can help to identify any potential segregation of duties violations or risks. The other options are not as efficient as reviewing a report of security rights in the system, because they either rely on observation or testing rather than analysis, or they focus on existing rather than potential violations. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.2

Answer: A
Explanation: The most concerning issue associated with a data center’s CCTV surveillance cameras is that the recordings are not regularly reviewed. This means that any unauthorized access, theft, vandalism, or other security incidents may go unnoticed and unreported. CCTV recordings are a valuable source of evidence and deterrence for data center security, and they should be monitored and audited periodically to ensure compliance with policies and regulations. If the recordings are not reviewed, the data center may face legal, financial, or reputational risks in case of a security breach or an audit failure.
The other options are less concerning because they do not directly affect the security of the data center. CCTV cameras are not required to be installed in break rooms, as they are not critical areas for data protection. CCTV records can be deleted after one year, as long as they comply with the data retention policy of the organization and the applicable laws.
CCTV footage does not need to be recorded 24 x 7, as long as there is sufficient coverage of the data center during operational hours and when access is granted to authorized personnel. References:

ISACA Journal Article: Physical security of a data center1
Data Center Security: Checklist and Best Practices | Kisi2
Video Surveillance Best Practices | Taylored Systems

Answer: B
Explanation: The IS auditor’s primary focus when evaluating an organization’s offsite storage facility should be the adequacy of physical and environmental controls. Physical and environmental controls are essential to protect the offsite storage facility from unauthorized access, theft, fire, water damage, pests or other hazards that could compromise the integrity and availability of backup media. Shared facilities is something that the IS auditor should consider when evaluating the offsite storage facility, but it is not the primary focus.
Results of business continuity plan (BCP) test or retention policy and period are things that the IS auditor should review when evaluating the organization’s BCP or backup strategy, not the offsite storage facility itself. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 388

Answer: A
Explanation: The best approach to optimize resources when both internal and external audit teams are reviewing the same IT general controls area is to leverage the work performed by external audit for the internal audit testing. This can avoid duplication of efforts, reduce audit costs and enhance coordination between the audit teams. The internal audit team should evaluate the quality and reliability of the external audit work before relying on it. Ensuring both the internal and external auditors perform the work simultaneously is not an efficient use of resources, as it would create redundancy and possible interference. Requesting that the external audit team leverage the internal audit work may not be feasible or acceptable, as the external audit team may have different objectives, standards and independence requirements. Rolling forward the general controls audit to the subsequent audit year is not a good practice, as it would delay the identification and remediation of any control weaknesses in a high-risk area. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 247

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster is to periodically test backups stored in a remote location. Testing backups is essential to verify that the backup copies are valid, complete, and recoverable.
Testing backups also helps to identify any issues or errors that may affect the backup process or the restoration of data. Storing backups in a remote location is important to protect the backup copies from physical damage, theft, or unauthorized access that may occur at the primary site. Using an electronic vault for incremental backups, deploying a fully automated backup maintenance system, or using both tape and disk backup systems are not sufficient to ensure that a backup copy is available for restoration of mission critical data after a disaster, as they do not address the need for testing backups or storing them in a remote location. References: Backup and Recovery of Data: The Essential Guide | Veritas, The Truth About Data Backup for Mission-Critical Environments - DATAVERSITY.

Answer: D
Explanation: File transfer protocol (FTP) is a service that allows users to transfer files between computers over a network. If enabled within firewall rules, FTP would present the greatest risk, as it can expose sensitive data to unauthorized access, modification, or deletion. FTP does not provide encryption or authentication, which makes it vulnerable to eavesdropping, spoofing, and tampering attacks. Simple mail transfer protocol (SMTP), simple object access protocol (SOAP), and hypertext transfer protocol (HTTP) are also services that can be used to exchange data over a network, but they have more security features than FTP, such as encryption, authentication, or validation. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users is that the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case. A post-implementation review is a process of evaluating the outcomes and benefits of a project after it has been completed and implemented. A post-implementation review can help to assess whether the project met its objectives, delivered its expected value, and satisfied its stakeholders1. A survey is a method of collecting feedback and opinions from users or other stakeholders about their experience and satisfaction with the project. Asurvey can help to measure the user acceptance, usability, and functionality of the project deliverables2. A business case is a document that justifies the need for a project based on its expected benefits, costs, risks, and alternatives. A business case defines the scope,objectives, and requirements of the project and provides a basis for its approval and initiation3. Therefore, an IS auditor should be concerned if the survey questions did not address the scope of the business case, as it may indicate that the post-implementation review was not comprehensive, relevant, or aligned with the project goals. The other options are less concerning or incorrect because:
A. The survey results were not presented in detail to management is not a great concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users, as it is more of a communication or reporting issue than an audit issue. While presenting the survey results in detail to management may help to inform them about the project performance and outcomes, it does not affect the validity or quality of the post-implementation review itself.
C. The survey form template did not allow additional feedback to be provided is not a great concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users, as it is more of a design or format issue than an audit issue. While allowing additional feedback to be provided may help to capture more insights or suggestions from users, it does not affect the validity or quality of the post-implementation review itself.
D. The survey was issued to employees a month after implementation is not a great concern for an IS auditor when a post-implementation review was conducted by issuing a survey to users, as it is more of a timing or scheduling issue than an audit issue. While issuing the survey to employees sooner after implementation may help to collect more accurate and timely feedback from users, it does not affect the validity or quality of the post-implementation review itself. References: Post ImplementationReview - ISACA, Survey - ISACA, Business Case - ISACA

Answer: B
Explanation: The most important factor to ensure that electronic evidence collected during a forensic investigation will be admissible in future legal proceedings is to document evidence handling by personnel throughout the forensic investigation. Documentation is essential to establish the chain of custody, prove the integrity and authenticity of the evidence, and demonstrate compliance with legal and ethical standards. Documentation should include information such as the date, time, location, source, destination, method, purpose, result, and authorization of each action performed on the evidence. Documentation should also include any observations, findings, assumptions, limitations, or exceptions encountered during the investigation. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: D
Explanation: The best recommendation for an IS auditor when finding that a third-party IT service provider hosts the organization’s HR system in a foreign country is to conduct a privacy impact analysis. A privacy impact analysis is a systematic process that identifies and evaluates the potential risks and impacts of collecting, using, disclosing, and storing personal information. A privacy impact analysis will help the IS auditor to assess the legal, regulatory, contractual, and ethical obligations of the organization and the service provider regarding the protection of personal information. A privacy impact analysis will also help to identify and mitigate any privacy risks and gaps in the service level agreement. References:

CISA Certification | CertifiedInformation Systems Auditor | ISACA
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: C
Explanation: The most critical factor for the effective implementation of IT governance is a supportive corporate culture. A supportive corporate culture is one that fosters collaboration, communication and commitment among all stakeholders involved in IT governance processes. A supportive corporate culture also promotes a shared vision, values and goals for IT governance across the organization. Strong risk management practices, internal auditor commitment or documented policies are important elements for IT governance implementation, but they are not sufficient without a supportive corporate culture. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 41

Answer: B
Explanation: The type of risk associated with the potential for the auditor to miss a sequence of logged events that could indicate an error in the IPS configuration is detection risk. Detection risk is the risk that the auditor’s procedures will not detect a material misstatement or error that exists in an assertion or a control. Detection risk can be affected by factors such as the nature, timing, and extent of the audit procedures, the quality and sufficiency of the audit evidence, and the auditor’s professional judgment and competence. Detection risk can be reduced by applying appropriate audit techniques, such as sampling, testing, observation, inquiry, and analysis. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: D
Explanation: The most significant risk that IS auditors are required to consider for each engagement is the misalignment with business objectives. This is because IS audit engagements are intended to provide assurance that the IT systems and processes support the achievement of the business objectives and strategies. If there is a misalignment,it could result in wasted resources, missed opportunities, inefficiencies, errors, or failures that could adversely affect the organization’s performance and reputation12. References: 1: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Chapter 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Section 1.3: Audit Risk, page 28 2: CISA Online Review Course, Module 1: The Process of Auditing Information Systems, Lesson 1.3: Audit Risk

Answer: B
Explanation: The best evidence that an organization’s IT strategy is aligned to its business objectives is that the IT strategy is approved by executive management. This implies that the IT strategy has been reviewed and validated by the senior leaders of the organization, who are responsible for setting and overseeing the business objectives. The IT strategy may be modified inresponse to organizational change, based on IT operational best practices, or have significant impact on the business strategy, but these are not sufficient indicators of alignment without executive approval. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 1, Section 1.2.1

Answer: A
Explanation: The best recommendation for improving IT governance within the organization is to implement key performance indicators (KPIs). KPIs are measurable values that show how effectively the organization is achieving its key business objectives. KPIs can help the organization tomonitor and evaluate the performance, efficiency, and alignment of its IT processes and resources with its business goals and strategies1.
The other options are not as effective as implementing KPIs for improving IT governance. Option B, implementing annual third-party audits, is a good practice but may not be sufficient or timely to identify and address the issues or gaps in IT governance. Option C, benchmarking organizational performance against industry peers, is a useful technique but may not reflect the specific needs and expectations of the organization’s stakeholders.
Option D, requiring executive management to draft IT strategy, is a necessary step but not enough to ensure that IT governance is implemented and monitored throughout the organization.

Answer: D
Explanation: Asset life cycle management is a technique of asset management where facility managers maximize the usable life of assets throughplanning, purchasing, using, maintaining, and disposing of assets1. The mainaim of assetlife cycle management is to reduce costs and increase productivity by optimizing the performance, reliability, and lifespan of assets2. Asset life cycle management can help prevent the situation of having unused applications by ensuring that the applications are aligned with the business needs, objectives, and strategies, and that they are regularly reviewed, updated, or retired as necessary3.
The other options are not as effective as asset life cycle management for preventing unused applications. A formal request for proposal (RFP) process is a method of soliciting bids from potential vendors or suppliers for a project or service. A RFP process can help select the best application for a specific requirement, but it does not ensure that the application will be used or maintained throughout its lifecycle. Business case development procedures are a set of steps that involve defining the problem, analyzing the alternatives, and proposing a solution for a project or initiative. Business case development procedures can help justify the need and value of an application, but they do not guarantee that the application will be utilized or supported after its implementation. An information asset acquisition policy is a document that outlines the rules and standards for acquiring information assets such as applications. An information asset acquisition policy can help ensure that the applications are acquired in a consistent and compliant manner, but it does not address how the applications will be managed or disposed of after their acquisition.

Answer: B
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing a network printer disposal process is that evidence is not available to verify printer hard drives have been sanitized prior to disposal. This can expose sensitive data to unauthorized parties and cause data breaches. Disposal policies and procedures not being consistently implemented or business units being allowed to dispose printers directly to vendors are compliance issues, but not as critical as data protection. Inoperable printers being stored in an unsecured area is a physical security issue, but not as severe as data leakage. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 387

Answer: D
Explanation: The IS auditor should ensure that penetration test results are classified at the highest level of sensitivity, because they contain detailed information about the vulnerabilities and weaknesses of the IT systems and networks, as well as the methods and tools used by the testers to exploit them. Penetration test results can be used by malicious actors to launch cyberattacks or cause damage to the organization if they are disclosed or accessed without authorization. Therefore, they should be protected with the highest level of confidentiality, integrity and availability. The other options are not as sensitive as penetration test results, because they either do not reveal as muchinformation aboutthe IT security posture, or they are already known or reported by the organization. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 5, Section 5.2.4

Answer: C
Explanation: The major concern with the situation where security incidents are resolved and closed, but root causes are not investigated, is that vulnerabilities have not been properly addressed. Vulnerabilities are weaknesses or gaps in the security posture of an organization that can be exploited by threat actors to compromise its systems, data, or operations. If root causes are not investigated, vulnerabilities may remain undetected or unresolved, allowing attackers to exploit them again or use them asentry points for further attacks. This can result in repeated or escalated security incidents that can cause more damage or disruption to the organization.
The other options are not as major as the concern about vulnerabilities, but rather secondary or related issues that may arise from the lack of root cause analysis. Abuses by employees have not been reported is a concern that may indicate a lack of awareness, accountability, or monitoring of insider threats. Lessons learned have not been properly documented is a concern that may indicate a lack of improvement, learning, or feedback from security incidents. Security incident policies are out of date is a concern that may indicate a lack of alignment, review, or update of security incident processes.
References:

ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition (2019), page 254
Why Root Cause Analysis is Crucial to Incident Response (IR) - Avertium3
Root Cause Analysis Steps and How it Helps Incident Response …

Answer: C
Explanation: The best course of action for an IS auditor who finds that some critical recommendations have not been implemented is to evaluate senior management’s acceptance of the risk. The IS auditor should understand the reasons why the recommendations have not been implemented and the implications for the organization’s risk exposure. The IS auditor should also verify that senior management has formally acknowledged and accepted the residual risk and has documented the rationale and justification for their decision. The IS auditor should communicate the findings and the risk acceptance to the audit committee and other relevant stakeholders. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: B
Explanation: Adequate action taken for noncompliance with the service level agreement (SLA) provides the best evidence that outsourced provider services are being properly managed. This shows that the organization is monitoring the performance of the provider and enforcing the terms of the SLA.
The other options are not as convincing as evidence of proper management. Option A, the SLA includes penalties for non-performance, is a good practice but does not guarantee that the penalties are actually applied or that the performance is satisfactory. Option C, the vendor provides historical data to demonstrate its performance, is not reliable because the data may be biased or inaccurate. Option D, internal performance standards align with corporate strategy, is irrelevant to the question of outsourced provider management.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019, page 2821
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription, QID 1066692

Answer: D
Explanation: The IS auditor should notify audit management of the finding first, as this is a significant issue that may affect the audit scope and objectives. The IS auditor should not notify law enforcement or require the third party to notify customers without consulting audit management first. The audit report with a significant finding should be issued after the audit is completed and the findings are validated. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 247

Answer: C
Explanation: The most important thing for the company to verify when outsourcing the printing of customer statements is whether the provider’s information security controls are aligned with the company’s. This isbecause customer statements contain sensitive personal and financial information that need to be protected from unauthorized access, disclosure, modification or destruction. The provider’s information security controls should be consistent with the company’s policies, standards and regulations, and should be audited periodically to ensure compliance. The other options are also relevant, but not as critical as information security. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 3, Section 3.2.2

Answer: C
Explanation: Access controls for source libraries are the features of a library control software package that would protect against unauthorized updating of source code. Access controls are the mechanisms that regulate who can access, modify, or delete the source code stored in the source libraries. Source libraries are the repositories that contain the source code files and their versions. By implementing access controls for source libraries, the library controlsoftware package can prevent unauthorized or malicious users from tampering with the source code and compromising its integrity, security, or functionality1.
The other options are not as effective as access controls for source libraries in protecting against unauthorized updating of source code. Option A, required approvals at each life cycle step, is a good practice but may not be sufficient to prevent unauthorized updates if the approval process is bypassed or compromised. Option B, date and time stamping of source and object code, is a useful feature but may not prevent unauthorized updates if the date and time stamps are altered or ignored. Option D, release-to-release comparison of source code, is a helpful feature but may not prevent unauthorized updates if the comparison results are not reviewed or acted upon.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription
How to protect your source code from attackers2
How to Stop Unauthorized Use of Open Source Code

Answer: B
Explanation: The most significant risk from not testing patches before putting them into production is the lack of system integrity. Patches are software updates that fix bugs, vulnerabilities or performance issues in an application system. However, patches may also introduce new errors, conflicts or compatibility issues that could affect thefunctionality, reliability or security of the system4. By not testing patches before putting them into production, the organization exposes itself to the risk of system failures, data corruption or unauthorized access. Loss of application support, outdated system documentation and developer access to production are also risks from not testing patches, but they are not as significant as the lack of system integrity. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 2951
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Answer: D
Explanation: The necessary condition for effective risk management in IT governance is that risk evaluation is embedded in management processes. Risk evaluation is the process of comparing the results of risk analysis with risk criteria to determine whether the risk and/or its magnitude is acceptable or tolerable. Risk evaluation should be integrated into the management processes of planning, implementing, monitoring, and reviewing the IT activities and resources. This will ensure that risk management is aligned with the business objectives, strategies, and values, and that risk responses are timely, appropriate, and effective. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & ExplanationsDatabase

Answer: D
Explanation: A corrective control is a control that aims to restore normal operations after a disruption or incident has occurred. Executing emergency response plans is an example of a corrective control, as it helps to mitigate the impact of an incident and resume business functions. Separating equipment development testing and production is a preventive control, as it helps to avoid errors or unauthorized changes in production systems. Verifying duplicate calculations in data processing is a detective control, as it helps to identify errors or anomalies in data processing. Reviewing user access rights for segregation is also a detective control, as it helps to detect any violations of segregation of duties principles. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 64

Answer: C
Explanation: The greatest concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s disaster recovery plan (DRP) is that the DRP has not been updated since an IT infrastructure upgrade. This could render the DRP obsolete or ineffective, as it may not reflect the current configuration, dependencies or recovery requirements of the IT systems. The IS auditor should ensure that the DRP is reviewed and updated regularly to align with any changes in the IT environment. The DRP has not been formally approved by senior management is a concern for an IS auditor reviewing an organization’s DRP, but it is not as critical as ensuring that the DRP is up to date and valid. The DRP has not been distributed to end users or the DRP contains recovery procedures for critical servers only are issues that relate to the communication or scope of the DRP, but not to its validity or effectiveness. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 389

Answer: C
Explanation: The first step in the incident response process for a suspected breach is to research the validity of the alerted breach. An incident response process is a set of procedures that defines how to handle security incidents in a timely and effective manner. The first step in this process is to research the validity of the alerted breach, which means to verify whether the alert is genuine or false positive, to determine the scope and impact of the incident, and to gather relevant information for further analysis and action. Informing potentially affected customers of the security breach, notifying business management of the security breach, and engaging a third party to independently evaluate the alerted breach are also steps in the incident response process, but they are not the first step. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 4251
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Answer: B
Explanation: The best recommendation for an IS auditor who finds that one employee has unauthorized access to confidential data is to require the business owner to conduct regular access reviews. Access reviews are periodic assessments of user access rights and permissions to ensure that they are appropriate, necessary, and aligned with the business needs and objectives. Access reviews help to identify and remediate any unauthorized, excessive, or obsolete access that could pose a security risk or violate compliance requirements. The business owner is responsible for defining and approving the access requirements for their data and ensuring that they are enforced and monitored. References:

CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)
CISA Questions, Answers & Explanations Database

Answer: C
Explanation: The best way to reduce the immediate risk associated with using an unsupported version of the software is to segregate the outdated software system from the main network. An unsupported software system may have unpatched vulnerabilities that could be exploited by attackers to compromise the system or access sensitive data. By isolating the system from the rest of the network, the organization can limit the exposure and impact of a potential breach. Verifying all patches have been applied to the outdated software system, closing all unused ports on the outdated software system and monitoring network traffic attempting to reach the outdated software system are also good practices, but they do not address the root cause of the risk, which is the lack of vendor support and updates. References:

CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, page 2951
CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month Subscription

Answer: D
Explanation: The best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities is to perform a configuration review. A configuration review is an audit procedure that involves examining and verifying the security settings and parameters of application servers against predefined standards or best practices. A configuration review can help to identify and remediate any deviations, inconsistencies, or misconfigurations thatmay expose the application servers to unauthorized access, exploitation, or compromise6. A configuration review can also help to ensure compliance with security policies and regulations, as well as enhance the performance and availability of application servers. The other options are less effective or incorrect because:
A. Improving the change management process is not the best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities, as it does not address the root cause of the problem or provide a specific solution. While improving the change management process may help to prevent future inconsistencies or misconfigurations in application server settings, it does not ensure that the existing ones are detected and corrected.
B. Establishing security metrics is not the best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities, as it does not address the root cause of the problem or provide a specific solution. While establishing security metrics may help to measure and monitor the security performance and posture of application servers, it does not ensure that the existing inconsistencies or misconfigurations in application server settings are detected and corrected.
C. Performing a penetration test is not the best recommendation by the IS auditor for finding that application servers had inconsistent security settings leading to potential vulnerabilities, as it does not address the root cause of the problem or provide a specific solution. While performing a penetration test may help to simulate and evaluate the impact of an attack on application servers, it does not ensure that the existing inconsistencies or misconfigurations in application server settings are detected and corrected. References: Configuring system to useapplication server security - IBM, Application Security Risk: Assessment and Modeling - ISACA, Five Key Components of an Application SecurityProgram - ISACA, ISACA Practitioner Guidelines for Auditors - SSH, SCADA Cybersecurity Framework - ISACA

Answer: B
Explanation: The best way to validate that appropriate security controls are in place to prevent data loss is to review compliance with data loss and applicable mobile device user acceptance policies. This will ensure that the organization has established clear rules and guidelines for employees to follow when connecting their personal devices to company-owned computers. A walk-through, a DLP tool configuration, and a security awareness training are not sufficient to validate the effectiveness of the controls, as they may not cover all possible scenarios and risks. References: IT Audit Fundamentals Certificate Resources

Answer: C
Explanation: The most useful metric for management to consider when reviewing a project portfolio is the net present value (NPV) of the portfolio. NPV is a measure of the profitability and value of a project or a portfolio of projects, taking into account the time value of money and the expected cash flows. NPV compares the present value of the future cash inflows with the present value of the initial investment and shows how much value is created or lost by undertaking a project or a portfolio of projects1. A positive NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth more than its cost and will generate a positive return on investment. A negative NPV indicates that the project or portfolio is worth less than its cost and will result in a loss. Therefore, NPV helps management to prioritize andselect the most profitable and valuable projects or portfolios that align with the organizational strategy and objectives2. The other options are less useful or incorrect because:
A. Cost of projects divided by total IT cost is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not reflect the benefits, value, or return of the projects. It only shows the proportion of IT budget allocated to the projects, which may not be indicative oftheir strategic importance or alignment3.
B. Expected return divided by total project cost is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not account for the time value of money and the timing of cash flows. It only shows the average return per unit of cost, which may not be comparable across different projects or portfolios with differentdurations, risks, and cash flow patterns4.
D. Total cost of each project is not a useful metric for reviewing a project portfolio, as it does not reflect the benefits, value, or return of the projects. It only shows theinitial investment required for eachproject, which may not be indicative of their profitability or viability5. References: Portfolio, Program and Project Management Using COBIT 5 - ISACA, Project PortfolioManagement - ISACA, CISA Review Manual (Digital Version), Standards, Guidelines, Tools and Techniques

Answer: A
Explanation: The mitigating factor that would most significantly minimize the impact of not renewing IT risk acceptances in a timely manner is having documented compensating controls over the business processes. Compensating controls are alternative controls that reduce or eliminate the risk when the primary control is not feasible or cost-effective. The other factors, such as previous approval by senior management, unchanged business environment, and small percentage of issues, do not mitigate the risk as effectively as compensating controls. References: ISACA CISA Review Manual 27th Edition Chapter 1

Answer: D
Explanation: Integration testing is the best way to ensure that an application is performing according to its specifications, because it tests the interaction and compatibility of different modules or components of the application. Unit testing, pilot testing and system testing are also important, but they do not cover the whole functionality and integration of the application as well as integration testing does. References: CISA Review Manual (Digital Version)1, Chapter 4, Section 4.2.3

Answer: B
Explanation: The most important thing for an IS auditor to determine during the detailed design phase of a system development project is that acceptance test criteria have been developed. Acceptance test criteria define the expected functionality, performance and quality of the system, and are used to verify that the system meets the user requirements and specifications. The IS auditor should ensure that the acceptance test criteria are clear, measurable and agreed upon by all stakeholders. Program coding standards have been followed is something that the IS auditor should check during the coding or testing phase, not the detailed design phase. Data conversion procedures have been established or the design has been approved by senior management are things that the IS auditor should verify during the implementation phase, not the detailed design phase. References: ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2018, page 323

Answer: A
Explanation: Separate authorization for input of transactions. This control would have best prevented this type of fraud in a retail environment by ensuring that the warehouse employee who handles the inventory items does not have the authority to enter adjustments to the inventory system. This would create a segregation of duties that would reduce the risk of collusion and concealment of theft.
The other options are not as effective as option A in preventing this type of fraud. Option B, statistical sampling of adjustment transactions, is a detective control that may help identify fraudulent transactions after they have occurred, but it does not prevent them from happening in the first place. Option C, unscheduled audits of lost stock lines, is also a detective control that may reveal discrepancies between the physical and recorded inventory, but it does not address the root cause of the fraud. Option D, an edit check for the validity of the inventory transaction, is a preventive control that may help verify the accuracy and completeness of the transaction data, but it does not prevent unauthorized or fraudulent adjustments.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month
Subscription
Different Types of Inventory Fraud and How to Prevent Them1
6 Ways to Prevent Inventory Fraud in Your Business2

Answer: B
Explanation: Visualization technology is the use of software and hardware to create graphical representations of data, such as charts, graphs, maps, images, etc. Visualization technology can help users to understand, analyze, and communicate complex and large amounts of data in an intuitive and engaging way1.
One of the primary advantages of using visualization technology for corporate applications is that it can improve the utilization of resources, such as time, money, human capital, and physical assets. Some of the ways that visualization technology can achieve this are:
Visualization technology can help users to quickly and easily explore, filter, and interact with data, reducing the need for manual data processing and analysis1. This can save time and effort for both data producers and consumers, and allow them to focus on more value-added tasks.
Visualization technology can help users to discover patterns, trends, outliers, correlations, and causations in data that may otherwise be hidden or overlooked in traditional reports or tables1. This can enable users to make better and faster decisions based on data-driven insights, and optimize their strategies and actions accordingly. Visualization technology can help users to communicate and share data more effectively and persuasively with different audiences, such as customers, partners,investors, regulators, etc1. This can enhance the reputation and credibility of the organization, and foster collaboration and innovation among stakeholders.
Visualization technology can help users to monitor and measure the performance and impact of their activities, products, services, or processes1. This can help users to identify problems or opportunities for improvement, and adjust their plans or actions accordingly.
Visualization technology can help users to create engaging and interactive experiences for their customers or end-users1. This can increase customer satisfaction and loyalty, and generate more revenue or value for the organization. Therefore, using visualization technology for corporate applications can help organizations to better utilize their resources and achieve their goals.
References:

ISACA, CISA Review Manual, 27th Edition, 2019
ISACA, CISA Review Questions, Answers & Explanations Database - 12 Month
Subscription
TechRadar Blog, Best data visualization tools of 20232
IBM Blog, What is Data Visualization?3
TDWI Blog, Data Visualization Technology4
Tableau Blog, What are the advantages and disadvantagesof data visualization?

Aspect	Details
Exam Name	CISA (Certified Information Systems Auditor)
Exam Cost	$575 (for ISACA members)
Total Time	4 hours
Available Languages	English
Passing Marks	Scaled score of 450 or higher out of 800
Prerequisites	A minimum of five years of professional information systems auditing, control, or security work experience

Domain	Percentage	Description
Domain 1 - Information System Auditing Process	21%	Covers IS audit standards, guidelines, and best practices, and the audit process
Domain 2 - Governance and Management of IT	17%	Focuses on IT governance and management principles and practices, including IT strategy, policies, and organizational structure
Domain 3 - Information Systems Acquisition, Development, and Implementation	12%	Examines the process of acquiring, developing, testing, and implementing information systems and infrastructure
Domain 4 - Information Systems Operations and Business Resilience	23%	Covers IT operations, support, and service management, as well as business continuity and disaster recovery
Domain 5 - Protection of Information Assets	27%	Focuses on information asset security and control, including data privacy, confidentiality, integrity, and availability

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