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Cisco 200-301 Exam Overview:

Detail Information
Exam Code 200-301
Exam Name Cisco Certified Network Associate (CCNA)
Exam Cost $300 USD
Total Time 120 minutes
Exam Format Multiple-choice questions (MCQs), simulations, and drag-and-drop
Available Languages English and Japanese
Passing Marks Cisco does not publicly disclose a specific passing score. The score is determined through statistical analysis and can vary. However, a typical range is around 825-850 out of 1000.

Cisco Certified Network Associate Exam Topics Breakdown

Content Area Percentage
Domain Percentage of Exam
Network Fundamentals 20%
Network Access 20%
IP Connectivity 25%
IP Services 10%
Security Fundamentals 15%
Automation and Programmability 10%
Cisco 200-301 Sample Question Answers

Question # 1

Which interface enables communication between a program on the controller and a program on the networking devices? 

A. northbound interface 
B. software virtual interface 
C. southbound interface
 D. tunnel Interface 

Question # 2

What is a reason to configure a trunk port that connects to a WLC distribution port? 

A. Eliminate redundancy with a link failure in the data path. 
B. Allow multiple VLAN to be used in the data path. 
C. Provide redundancy if there is a link failure for out-of-band management. 
D. Permit multiple VLANs to provide out-of-band management. 

Question # 3

Refer lo the exhibit. What is the next-hop P address for R2 so that PC2 reaches the application server via ElGRP?

A. 192.168.30.1 
B. 10.10 105 
C. 10.10.10.6 
D. 192.168.201 

Question # 4

Refer to the exhibit. Rapid PVST+ mode is on the same VLAN on each switch. Which switch becomes the root bridge and why? 

A. SW2, because its MAC address is the highest 
B. SW3, because its priority is the highest 
C. SW4, because its priority is highest and its MAC address is lower 
D. SW1, because its priority is the lowest and its MAC address is higher 

Question # 5

What is a benefit for external users who consume public cloud resources? 

A. implemented over a dedicated WAN 
B. located in the same data center as the users
C. all hosted on physical servers 
D. accessed over the Internet 

Question # 6

What is a function of the core and distribution layers in a collapsed-core architecture? 

A. The router must use IPv4 and IPv6 addresses at Layer 3. 
B. The core and distribution layers are deployed on two different devices to enable failover. 
C. The router can support HSRP for Layer 2 redundancy in an IPv6 network. 
D. The router operates on a single device or a redundant pair. 

Question # 7

Which remote access protocol provides unsecured remote CLI access? 

A. console
 B. Telnet 
C. Bash 
D. SSH

Question # 8

Refer to the exhibit. How many objects are present in the given JSON-encoded data?

A. one 
B. four 
C. seven 
D. nine 

Question # 9

How does encryption project the wireless network? 

A. via integrity checks to identify wireless forgery attacks in the frame 
B. via specific ciphers to detect and prevent zero-day network attacks 
C. via an algorithm to change wireless data so that only the access point and client understand it 
D. via a policy to prevent unauthorized users from communicating on the wireless network 

Question # 10

Which signal frequency appears 60 times per minute? 

A. 1 Hz signal
 B. 1 GHz signal 
C. 60 Hz signal 
D. 60 GHz signal 

Question # 11

What is a function of MAC address learning? 

A. It is enabled by default on all VLANs and interfaces 
B. It increases the potential for MAC address flooding. 
C. It is disabled by default on all interfaces connected to trunks 
D. lt increases security on the management VLAN 

Question # 12

What is a zero-day exploit? 

A. It is when a new network vulnerability is discovered before a fix is available 
B. It is when the perpetrator inserts itself in a conversation between two parties and captures or alters data. 
C. It is when the network is saturated with malicious traffic that overloads resources and bandwidth 
D. It is when an attacker inserts malicious code into a SOL server. 

Question # 13

A network engineer must configure an interface with IP address 10.10.10.145 and a subnet mask equivalent to 11111111.11111111.11111111.11111000. Which subnet mask must the engineer use?

 A. /29 
B. /30 
C. /27 
D. /28 

Question # 14

What must be considered for a locally switched FlexConnect AP if the VLANs that are used by the AP and client access are different? 

A. The APs must be connected to the switch with multiple links in LAG mode 
B. The switch port mode must be set to trunk 
C. The native VLAN must match the management VLAN of the AP 
D. IEEE 802.10 trunking must be disabled on the switch port. 

Question # 15

Which command enables HTTP access to the Cisco WLC? 

A. config network secureweb enable 
B. config certificate generate web admin 
C. config network webmode enable 
D. config network telnet enable 

Question # 16

Refer to the exhibit. After configuring a new static route on the CPE. the engineer entered this series of commands to verify that the new configuration is operating normally When is the static default route installed into the routing table?

A. when 203 0 113.1 is no longer reachable as a next hop B. when the default route learned over external BGP becomes invalid 
B. when a route to 203.0 113 1 is learned via BGP
 C. when the default route over external BGP changes its next hop 

Question # 17

What differentiates device management enabled by Cisco DNA Center from traditional campus device management? 

A. per-device 
B. centralized 
C. device-by-device hands-on 
D. CLI-oriented device 

Question # 18

Which two HTTP methods are suitable for actions performed by REST-based APIs? (Choose two.) 

A. REMOVE 
B. REDIRECT 
C. OPOST 
D. GET
 E. UPOP 

Question # 19

Refer to the exhibit. Which interface is chosen to forward traffic to the host at 192.168.0.55?

A. GigabitEthernet0 
B. GigabitEthernet0/1 
C. Null0 
D. GigabitEthernet0/3 

Question # 20

When the LAG configuration is updated on a Cisco WLC which additional task must be performed when changes are complete? 

A. Flush all MAC addresses from the WLC 
B. Re-associate the WLC with the access point. 
C. Re-enable the WLC interfaces 
D. Reboot the WLC 

Question # 21

Which two protocols are used by an administrator for authentication and configuration on access points? 

A. Kerberos 
B. 802.1Q 
C. 802.1x 
D. TACACS+ 
E. RADIUS 

Question # 22

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic from R1 to the 10.10.2.0/24 subnet uses 192.168.1.2 as its next hop. An network engineer wants to update the R1 configuration so that traffic with destination 10.10.2.1 passes through router R3, and all other traffic to the 10.10.20/24 subnet passes through r2. Which command must be used?

A. Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 115 
B. Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 100 
C. Ip route 10.10.2.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.1.4 115 
D. Ip route 10.10.2.1 255.255.255.255 192.168.1.4 100 

Question # 23

Refer to Itie exhibit A network engineer started to configure port security on a new switch. These requirements must be met: * MAC addresses must be learned dynamically * Log messages must be generated without disabling the interface when unwanted traffic is seen Which two commands must be configured to complete this task"? (Choose two)

A. SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security mac-address sticky 
B. SW(confKj-if)=switchport port-security violation restrict 
C. SW(config.if)sswitchport port-security mac-address 0010.7B84.45E6 
D. SW(config-if)aswitchport port-security maximum 2 
E. SW(ccnfig-if)=switchport port-security violation shutdown 

Question # 24

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must translate the PC1 IP address to 10.199.77.100 and permit PC1 to ping the loopback 0 on router R2. What command set must be used? 

A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 

Question # 25

An engineer is configuring switch SW1 to act an NTP server when all upstream NTP server connectivity fails. Which configuration must be used?

A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 

Question # 26

What are two characteristics of a small office / home office connection environment? (Choose two.) 

A. It requires 10Gb ports on all uplinks. 
B. It supports between 50 and 100 users. 
C. It supports between 1 and 50 users. 
D. It requires a core, distribution, and access layer architecture. 
E. A router port connects to a broadband connection. 

Question # 27

The clients and OHCP server reside on different subnets. Which command must be used to forward requests and replies between clients on the 10.10.0.1/24 subnet and the DHCP server at 192.168.10.1? 

A. ip route 192.168.10.1 
B. ip default-gateway 192.168.10.1 
C. ip helper-address 192.168.10.1 
D. ip dhcp address 192.168.10.1

Question # 28

Refer to the exhibit. When router R1 receives a packet with destination IP address 10.56.0 62. through which interface does it route the packet? 

A. Null0 
B. VIan58 
C. Vlan60 
D. VIan59 

Question # 29

Refer to the exhibit. PC A is communicating with another device at IP address 10.227.225.255. Through which router does router Y route the traffic?

A. router A 
B. router B 
C. router C 
D. router D 

Question # 30

What are two advantages of implementing a controller-based architecture instead of a traditional network architecture? (Choose two.) 

A. It allows for seamless connectivity to virtual machines. 
B. It supports complex and high-scale IP addressing schemes. 
C. It enables configuration task automation. 
D. It provides increased scalability and management options. 
E. It increases security against denial-of-service attacks. 

Question # 31

A Cisco engineer notices thai two OSPF neighbors are connected using a crossover Ethernet cable. The neighbors are taking too long to become fully adjacent. Which command must be issued under the interface configuration on each router to reduce the time required for the adjacency to reach the FULL state?

 A. ip ospf network broadcast 
B. ip ospf dead-interval 40 
C. ip ospf network point-to-point 
D. ip ospf priority 0 

Question # 32

Refer to the exhibit. The administrator must configure a floating sialic default route that points to 2001:db8:1234:2::1 and replaces the current default route only if it fails. Which command must the engineer configure on the CPE?

A. ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 3 
B. ipv6 route ::/128 2001 :db8:1234:2::1 3 
C. ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 1
 D. ipv6 route ::/0 2001:db8:1234:2::1 2 

Question # 33

What describes a northbound REST API for SON? 

A. application-facing interface for SNMP GET requests 
B. network-element-facing interface for GET POST PUT and DELETE methods 
C. network-element-facing interface for the control and data planes 
D. application-facing interface far GET, POST, PUT, and DELETE methods

Question # 34

When should an engineer implement a collapsed-core architecture? 

A. for small networks with minimal need for growth 
B. the access and distribution layers must be on the same device 
C. for large networks that are connected to multiple remote sites 
D. only when using VSS technology 

Question # 35

Refer to the exhibit.  What is the next hop for traffic entering R1 with a destination of 10.1.2 126? 

A. 10.165 20.126
 B. 10.165.20.146 
C. 10.165.20.166 
D. 10.165 20.226 

Question # 36

What is a benefit of using private IPv4 addressing? 

A. Multiple companies can use the same addresses without conflicts.
 B. Direct connectivity is provided to internal hosts from outside an enterprise network. 
C. Communication to the internet Is reachable without the use of NAT. 
D. All external hosts are provided with secure communication to the Internet. 

Question # 37

Refer to the exhibit.  Which entry is the longest prefix match for host IP address 192.168.10.5? 

A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4 

Question # 38

Which action implements physical access control as part of the security program of an organization1? 

A. backing up syslogs at a remote location 
B. configuring a password for the console port 
C. configuring enable passwords on network devices 
D. setting up IP cameras to monitor key infrastructure 

Question # 39

Refer to the exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the lookback3 interface of the Washington router.

A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2 
B. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1 
C. ipv6 route 2000:3 123 s0/0/0 
D. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3 
E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1 

Question # 40

A network engineer is upgrading a small data center to host several new applications, including server backups that are expected to account for up to 90% of the bandwidth during peak times. The data center connects to the MPLS network provider via a primary circuit and a secondary circuit. How does the engineer inexpensively update the data center to avoid saturation of the primary circuit by traffic associated with the backups? 

A. Assign traffic from the backup servers to a dedicated switch. 
B. Configure a dedicated circuit for the backup traffic. 
C. Place the backup servers in a dedicated VLAN. 
D. Advertise a more specific route for the backup traffic via the secondary circuit. 

Question # 41

Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to the 172.16.1.4/30 subnet? 

A. It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.9.5 using 172.16.4.4 as a backup.
 B. It sends all traffic over the path via 10.0.1.100. 
C. It load-balances traffic over 172.16.9.5 and 172.16.4.4. 
D. It sends all traffic over the path via 172.16.4.4. 

Question # 42

Refer to the exhibit.  Which configuration for RTR-1 deniess SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic? A)

A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 

Question # 43

What is the MAC address used with VRRP as a virtual address? 

A. 00-00-0C-07-AD-89 
B. 00-00-5E-00-01-0a 
C. 00-07-C0-70-AB-01 
D. 00-C6-41-93-90-91 

Question # 44

Refer to the exhibit. What is represented by the word "switch’’ in line 2 of the JSON schema?

A. array 
B. key 
C. value 
D. object 

Question # 45

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration establishes a Layer 2 LACP EtherChannel when applied to both switches? 

A. Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode active no shutdown 
B. Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode passive no shutdown 
C. Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode trunk channel-group 1 mode desirable no shutdown 
D. Interface range G1/1 – 1/3 switchport mode access channel-group 1 mode on no shutdown 

Question # 46

Which set of 2.4 GHz nonoverlapping wireless channels is standard in the United States? 

A. channels 2, 7, 9, and 11 
B. channels 1, 6, 11, and 14 
C. channels 2, 7, and 11 
D. channels 1, 6, and 11 

Question # 47

What is the role of disaggregation in controller-based networking? 

A. It divides the control-plane and data-plane functions. 
B. It summarizes the routes between the core and distribution layers of the network topology. 
C. It enables a network topology to quickly adjust from a ring network to a star network 
D. It streamlines traffic handling by assigning individual devices to perform either Layer 2 or Layer 3 functions. 

Question # 48

Refer to the exhibit. A packet sourced from 172.18.33.2 is destined for 172.18.32.38. Where does the router forward the packet?

A. GigabitEthernet0/0 
B. Loopback0
 C. 10.1.1.1 
D. 10.1.1.3 

Question # 49

Which QoS queuing method discards or marks packets that exceed the desired bit rate of traffic flow? 

A. shaping
B. policing 
C. CBWFQ 
D. LLQ 

Question # 50

What is a function of an endpoint? 

A. It is used directly by an individual user to access network services 
B. It passes unicast communication between hosts in a network 
C. It transmits broadcast traffic between devices in the same VLAN 
D. It provides security between trusted and untrusted sections of the network. 

Question # 51

What is the role of nonoverlapping channels in a wireless environment? 

A. to reduce interference 
B. to allow for channel bonding 
C. to stabilize the RF environment 
D. to increase bandwidth 

Question # 52

A Cisco engineer at a new branch office is configuring a wireless network with access points that connect to a controller that is based at corporate headquarters Wireless client traffic must terminate at the branch office and access-point survivability is required in the event of a WAN outage Which access point mode must be selected? 

A. Lightweight with local switching disabled 
B. Local with AP fallback enabled
 C. OfficeExtend with high availability disabled 
D. FlexConnect with local switching enabled 

Question # 53

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer executed the script and added commands that were not necessary for SSH and now must remove the commands.

A. metric 
B. cost 
C. longest prefix 
D. administrative distance 

Question # 54

Which two transport layer protocols carry syslog messages? (Choose two.) 

A. TCP 
B. IP 
C. RTP 
D. UDP 
E. ARP 

Question # 55

Refer to the exhibit. A new VLAN and switch are added to the network. A remote engineer configures OldSwitch and must ensure that the configuration meets these requirements: • accommodates current configured VLANs • expands the range to include VLAN 20 • allows for IEEE standard support for virtual LANs Which configuration on the NewSwitch side of the link meets these requirements?A)

 A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 

Question # 56

Refer to the exhibit.

A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D

Question # 57

Which device segregates a network into separate zones that have their own security policies?

A. IPS
 B. firewall 
C. access point 
D. switch 

Question # 58

When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format? 

A. 6 
B. 8 
C. 12 
D. 18 

Question # 59

Refer to the exhibit.  A network engineer executes the show ip route command on router D. What is the next hop to network 192.168 1 0/24 and why?

A. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it uses distance vector routing 
B. The next hop is 10.0.2.1 because it is a link-state routing protocol 
C. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a better administrative distance 
D. The next hop is 10.0.0.1 because it has a higher metric. 

Question # 60

Which cable type must be used to interconnect one switch using 1000 BASE-SX GBiC modules and another switch using 1000 BASE-SX SFP modules? 

A. LC to SC 
B. SC t ST 
C. SC to SC 
D. LC to LC 

Question # 61

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure a floating static route on an external EIGRP network. The destination subnet is the /29 on the LAN Interface of R86. Which command must be executed on R14?

A. ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.1 
B. ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.255..240 fa0/1 89 
C. ip route 10.80.65.0.255.255.248.0.10.73.65.66.171 
D. ip route 10.80.65.0.0.0.224.10.80.65.0. 255 

Question # 62

A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C 
D. Option D 

Question # 63

Refer to the exhibit. Which next-hop IP address has the least desirable metric when sourced from R1?

A. 10.10.10.5 
B. 10.10.10.3 
C. 10.10.10.4
 D. 10.10.10.2 

Question # 64

How do TCP and UDP fit into a query-response model? 

A. TCP establishes a connection prior to sending data, and UDP sends immediately. 
B. TCP uses error detection for packets, and UDP uses error recovery. 
C. TCP avoids using sequencing, and UDP avoids using acknowledgments. 
D. TCP encourages out-of-order packet delivery, and UDP prevents re-ordering. 

Question # 65

How does MAC learning function on a switch? 

A. broadcasts frames to all ports without queueing 
B. adds unknown source MAC addresses to the address table 
C. sends a retransmission request when a new frame is received 
D. sends frames with unknown destinations to a multicast group 

Question # 66

Refer to the exhibit.  Which two values does router R1 use to determine the best path to reach destinations in network 1,0.0.0/8? (Choose two.)

A. longest prefix match 
B. highest administrative distance 
C. highest metric 
D. lowest metric 
E. lowest cost to reach the next hop 

Question # 67

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure communication between PC A and the file server. Which commend must be configured on switch A to prevent interruption of other communications?

A. switch port trunk allowed vlan 12 
B. switchport trunk allowed vlan none 
C. switchport trunk allowed vlan add 13 
D. switch port trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11 

Question # 68

Which encryption method is used by WPA3? 

A. PSK 
B. TKIP 
C. SAE 
D. AES 

Question # 69

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configure NETCONF. After creating the configuration, the engineer gets output from the command show line but not from show running- config. Which command completes the configuration?

A. Device(config)# netconf lock-time 500 
B. Device(config)# netconf max-message 1000 
C. Device(config)# no netconf ssh acl 1 
D. Device(config)# netconf max-sessions 100 

Question # 70

Refer to the exhibit. Wireless LAN access must be set up to force all clients from the NA WLAN to authenticate against the local database. The WLAN is configured for local EAP authentication. The time that users access the network must not be limited. Which action completes this configuration? 

A. Uncheck the Guest User check box 
B. Check the Guest User Role check box 
C. Set the Lifetime (seconds) value to 0 
D. Clear the Lifetime (seconds) value 

Question # 71

What must a network administrator consider when deciding whether to configure a new wireless network with APs in autonomous mode or APs running in cloud-based mode? 

A. Autonomous mode APs are less dependent on an underlay but more complex to maintain than APs in cloud-based mode.
 B. Cloud-based mode APs relay on underlays and are more complex to maintain than APs in autonomous mode. 
C. Cloud-based mode APs are easy to deploy but harder to automate than APs in autonomous mode. 
D. Autonomous mode APs are easy to deploy and automate than APs in cloud-based mode. 

Question # 72

Which 802.11 frame type is Association Response? 

A. management
 B. control 
C. action
 D. protected frame 

Question # 73

Refer to the exhibit. How many JSON objects are presented?

A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4

Question # 74

Refer to the exhibit. The network engineer is configuring a new WLAN and is told to use a setup password for authentication instead of the RADIUS servers. Which additional set of tasks must the engineer perform to complete the configuration?

A. Disable PMF Enable PSK Enable 802.1x 
B. Select WPA Policy Enable CCKM Enable PSK 
C. Select WPA Policy Select WPA2 Policy Enable FT PSK 
D. Select WPA2 Policy Disable PMF Enable PSK 

Question # 75

What does a switch do when it receives a frame whose destination MAC address is missing from the MAC address table? 

A. It floods the frame unchanged across all remaining ports in the incoming VLAN. 
B. It appends the table with a static entry for the MAC and shuts down the port. 
C. It updates the CAM table with the destination MAC address of the frame. 
D. It changes the checksum of the frame to a value that indicates an invalid frame. 

Question # 76

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit traffic from the 10.10.0.0/24 subnet to the WAN on interlace Seria10. What is the effect of the configuration as the administrator applies the command?

A. The permit command fails and returns an error code. 
B. The router accepts all incoming traffic to Seria10 with the last octet of the source IP set to 0. 
C. The sourced traffic from IP range 10.0.0.0 -10.0.0.255 is allowed on Seria10. 
D. The router fails to apply the access list to the interface.

Question # 77

What provides connection redundancy increased bandwidth and load sharing between a wireless LAN controller and a Layer 2 switch? 

A. VLAN trunking 
B. tunneling 
C. first hop redundancy 
D. link aggregation 

Question # 78

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is checking the routing table in the main router to identify the path to a server on the network. Which route does the router use to reach the server at 192.168.2.2?

A. S 192.168.0.0/20 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1 
B. S 192.168.2.0/29 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1 
C. S 192.168.2.0/28 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1 
D. S 192.168.1.0/30 [1/0] via 10.1.1.1 

Question # 79

Which IPv6 address range is suitable for anycast addresses for distributed services such DHCP or DNS?

A. FF00:1/12
 B. 2001:db8:0234:ca3e::1/128 
C. 2002:db84:3f37:ca98:be05:8/64 
D. FE80::1/10

Question # 80

Why is a first-hop redundancy protocol implemented? 

A. to protect against default gateway failures 
B. to prevent loops in a network 
C. to enable multiple switches to operate as a single unit 
D. to provide load-sharing for a multilink segment 

Question # 81

Which enhancement is implemented in WPA3? 

A. applies 802.1x authentication 
B. usesTKIP 
C. employs PKI to identify access points 
D. protects against brute force attacks 

Question # 82

Refer to the exhibit.  How many JSON objects are represented?

A. 1 
B. 2 
C. 3 
D. 4 

Question # 83

An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.30.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 Which configuration should be used?

A. Option A  
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Question # 84

Which two tasks must be performed to configure NTP to a trusted server in client mode on a single network device? (Choose two) 

A. Enable NTP authentication.
B. Verify the time zone.
C. Disable NTP broadcasts
D. Specify the IP address of the NTP server
E. Set the NTP server private key 

Question # 85

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right 

Question # 86

Drag and drop the application protocols from the left onto the transport protocols that it uses on the right 

Question # 87

Which protocol requires authentication to transfer a backup configuration file from a router to a remote server? 

A. DTP
B. FTP
C. SMTP
D. TFTP

Question # 88

Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.163.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet? 

A. 207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0
B. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
C. 207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0
D. 207.165.200.250 via Serial/0/0/0

Question # 89

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcomewhen a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEfriemet3/1/4 port on a switch?

A. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLANconnectivity
B. The phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data inVLAN 50.
C. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to thephone has no VLAN connectivity
D. The phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to thephone sends and receives data in VLAN 1

Question # 90

A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically? 

A. enable dynamic MAC address learning
B. implement static MAC addressing.
C. enable sticky MAC addressing
D. implement auto MAC address learning

Question # 91

Refer to the exhibit. If R1 receives a packet destined to 172.161.1, to which IP address does it send the packet?

A. 192.168.12.2
B. 192.168.13.3
C. 192.168.14.4
D. 192.168.15.5

Question # 92

Refer to the exhibit. Based on the LACP neighbor status, in which mode is the SW1 port channel configured? 

A. passive
B. mode on
C. auto
D. active 

Question # 93

An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used? 

A. switchport trunk allowed vlan 10
B. switchport trunk native vlan 10
C. switchport mode trunk
D. switchport trunk encapsulation dot1q

Question # 94

Drag the descriptions of device management from the left onto the types of device management on the right.

Question # 95

How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC? 

A. The access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
B. The access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
C. The access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
D. The access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assumingconnectivity to the WLC

Question # 96

Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router? 

A. Configure the version of SSH
B. Configure VTY access.
C. Create a user with a password.
D. Assign a DNS domain name 

Question # 97

When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets? 

A. backup
B. standby
C. listening
D. forwarding

Question # 98

An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken? 

A. configure switchport nonegotiate
B. configure switchport mode dynamic desirable
C. configure switchport mode dynamic auto
D. configure switchport trunk dynamic desirable

Question # 99

When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?

A. IKEv2
B. IKEv1
C. IPsec
D. MD5 

Question # 100

Refer to the exhibit. Between which zones do wireless users expect to experience intermittent connectivity? 

A. between zones 1 and 2
B. between zones 2 and 5
C. between zones 3 and 4
D. between zones 3 and 6

Question # 101

Which set of action satisfy the requirement for multifactor authentication? 

A. The user swipes a key fob, then clicks through an email link
B. The user enters a user name and password, and then clicks a notification in anauthentication app on a mobile device
C. The user enters a PIN into an RSA token, and then enters the displayed RSA key on alogin screen
D. The user enters a user name and password and then re-enters the credentials on asecond screen 

Question # 102

Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay? 

A. ip helper-address
B. ip address dhcp
C. ip dhcp pool
D. ip dhcp relay

Question # 103

The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two) 

A. There is a duplex mismatch
B. There is a speed mismatch
C. There is a protocol mismatch
D. The interface is shut down
E. The interface is error-disabled

Question # 104

What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two) 

A. Light is transmitted through the core of the fiber
B. A BNC connector is used for fiber connections
C. The glass core component is encased in a cladding
D. Fiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj-45 connections
E. The data can pass through the cladding

Question # 105

What are two reasons that cause late collisions to increment on an Ethernet interface? (Choose two) 

A. when the sending device waits 15 seconds before sending the frame again  
B. when the cable length limits are exceeded  
C. when one side of the connection is configured for half-duplex
D. when Carrier Sense Multiple Access/Collision Detection is used
E. when a collision occurs after the 32nd byte of a frame has been transmitted 

Question # 106

Drag and drop the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller security settings from the left onto the correct security mechanism categories on the right.

Question # 107

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Whichadditional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly toenable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?

A. Option A 
B. Option B 
C. Option C
D. Option D

Question # 108

When a WLAN with WPA2 PSK is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller GUI which format is supported?

A. Unicode
B. base64
C. decimal
D. ASCII

Question # 109

What is a function of TFTP in network operations? 

A. transfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username andpassword
B. transfers files between file systems on a router
C. transfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link
D. transfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades 

Question # 110

An implementer is preparing hardware for virtualization to create virtual machines on a host. What is needed to provide communication between hardware and virtual machines?

A. hypervisor
B. router
C. straight cable
D. switch

Question # 111

What prevents a workstation from receiving a DHCP address? 

A. DTP  
B. STP
C. VTP
D. 802.10

Question # 112

Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request? 

A. action
B. management
C. control
D. data

Question # 113

Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface? 

A. The frame is processed in VLAN 5.
B. The frame is processed in VLAN 11
C. The frame is processed in VLAN 1
D. The frame is dropped

Question # 114

Refer to the exhibit. The New York router is configured with static routes pointing to the Atlanta and Washingtonsites. Which two tasks must be performed so that the Serial0/0/0 interfaces on the Atlantaand Washington routers can reach one another?(Choose two.)

A. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::1 command on the Washington router.
B. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::1 command on the Atlanta router.
C. Configure the Ipv6 route 2012::/126 s0/0/0 command on the Atlanta router.
D. Configure the ipv6 route 2023::/126 2012::2 command on the Atlanta router.
E. Configure the ipv6 route 2012::/126 2023::2 command on the Washington router.

Question # 115

Which function is performed by DHCP snooping? 

A. propagates VLAN information between switches
B. listens to multicast traffic for packet forwarding
C. provides DDoS mitigation
D. rate-limits certain traffic

Question # 116

How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap? 

A. It alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points
B. It allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.
C. It segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.
D. It analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.

Question # 117

A router running EIGRP has learned the same route from two different paths Which parameter does the router use to select the best path?

A. cost
B. adminstrative distance
C. metric
D. as-path 

Question # 118

A corporate office uses four floors in a building• Floor 1 has 24 users• Floor 2 has 29 users• Floor 3 has 28 users•Floor 4 has 22 usersWhich subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for therouter configuration?

A. 192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
B. 192.168.0.0.24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor
C. 192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor
D. l92.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor

Question # 119

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Question # 120

Drag and drop the descriptions from the left onto the configuration-management technologies on the right.

Question # 121

What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two) 

A. The core and distribution layers perform the same functions
B. The access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
C. The network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.
D. The core layer maintains wired connections for each host
E. The distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies

Question # 122

Which action does the router take as rt forwards a packet through the network? 

A. The router replaces the source and desinaoon labels wth the sending router uterfacelabel as a source and the next hop router label as a desbnabon
B. The router encapsulates the source and destination IP addresses with the sendingrouter P address as the source and the neighbor IP address as the destination
C. The router replaces the original source and destination MAC addresses with the sendingrouter MAC address as the source and neighbor MAC address as the destination
D. The router encapsulates the original packet and then includes a tag that identifies thesource router MAC address and transmit transparently to the destination

Question # 123

Which two outcomes are predictable behaviors for HSRP? (Choose two) 

A. The two routers share a virtual IP address that is used as the default gateway fordevices on the LAN.
B. The two routers negotiate one router as the active router and the other as the standbyrouter
C. Each router has a different IP address both routers act as the default gateway on theLAN, and traffic is load balanced between them.
D The two routers synchronize configurations to provide consistent packet forwarding
E. The two routed share the same IP address, and default gateway traffic is load-balancedbetween them

Question # 124

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two) 

A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exitingInterface by 256.
B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as thefeasible successor.
C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route
D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the localrouter of the bandwidth on the link
E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route 

Question # 125

Which two actions influence the EIGRP route selection process? (Choose two) 

A. The router calculates the reported distance by multiplying the delay on the exitingInterface by 256.
B. The router calculates the best backup path to the destination route and assigns it as thefeasible successor.
C. The router calculates the feasible distance of all paths to the destination route
D. The advertised distance is calculated by a downstream neighbor to inform the localrouter of the bandwidth on the link
E. The router must use the advertised distance as the metric for any given route 

Question # 126

A network administrator must to configure SSH for remote access to router R1 Therequirement is to use a public and private key pair to encrypt management traffic to andfrom the connecting client.Which configuration, when applied, meets the requirements?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Question # 127

What is the function of a server? 

A. It transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.
B. It provides shared applications to end users.
C. It routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.
D. It Creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks

Question # 128

R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?

A. route with the lowest cost
B. route with the next hop that has the highest IP
C. route with the shortest prefix length
D. route with the lowest administrative distance

Question # 129

What is a characteristic of private IPv4 addressing? 

A. traverse the Internet when an outbound ACL is applied
B. issued by IANA in conjunction with an autonomous system number
C. composed of up to 65.536 available addresses
D. used without tracking or registration

Question # 130

What benefit does controller-based networking provide versus traditional networking? 

A. moves from a two-tier to a three-tier network architecture to provide maximumredundancy
B. provides an added layer of security to protect from DDoS attacks
C. allows configuration and monitoring of the network from one centralized port
D. combines control and data plane functionality on a single device to minimize latency

Question # 131

How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?  

A. It selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destinationaddress.
B. It selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.
C. It selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.
D. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destinationaddress.

Question # 132

An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured? 

A. switchport mode trunk
B. switchport mode dynamic desirable
C. switchport mode dynamic auto
D. switchport nonegotiate

Question # 133

Refer to the exhibit. Which change to the configuration on Switch?allows the two switches to establish an GtherChannel?

A. Change the protocol to EtherChannel mode on.
B. Change the LACP mode to active
C. Change the LACP mode to desirable
D. Change the protocol to PAqP and use auto mode

Question # 134

What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?

A. No router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.
B. The highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.
C. The lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.
D. The router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.

Question # 135

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?

A. SW1
B. SW2
C. SW3
D. SW4

Question # 136

How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control? 

A. Authorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services
B. Authentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
C. Accounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control
D. Authorization identifies users and authentication provides access control 

Question # 137

Refer to the exhibit. The show ip ospf interface command has been executed on R1 How is OSPF configured? 

A. The interface is not participating in OSPF
B. A point-to-point network type is configured
C. The default Hello and Dead timers are in use
D. There are six OSPF neighbors on this interface

Question # 138

What are two benefits of network automation? (Choose two) 

A. reduced operational costs
B. reduced hardware footprint
C. faster changes with more reliable results
D. fewer network failures
E. increased network security

Question # 139

Which condition must be met before an NMS handles an SNMP trap from an agent? 

A. The NMS software must be loaded with the MIB associated with the trap.
B. The NMS must be configured on the same router as the SNMP agent
C. The NMS must receive a trap and an inform message from the SNMP agent within aconfigured interval
D. The NMS must receive the same trap from two different SNMP agents to verify that it isreliable.

Question # 140

Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation? 

A. 802.1x
B. IP Source Guard
C. MAC Authentication Bypass
D. 802.11n

Question # 141

Refer to Exhibit. Which action do the switches take on the trunk link? 

A. The trunk does not form and the ports go into an err-disabled status.
B. The trunk forms but the mismatched native VLANs are merged into a single broadcastdomain.
C. The trunk does not form, but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are allowed to traverse the link.
D. The trunk forms but VLAN 99 and VLAN 999 are in a shutdown state.

Question # 142

Refer to the exhibit. An administrator must configure interfaces Gi1/1 and Gi1/3 on switch SW11 PC-1 and PC2 must be placed in the Data VLAN and Phone-1 must be placed in the Voice VLAN Which configuration meets these requirements? 

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Question # 143

Which IPv6 address type provides communication between subnets and is unable to route on the Internet?

A. global unicast
B. unique local
C. link-local
D. multicast

Question # 144

What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture? 

A. Each device is separated by the same number of hops
B. It provides variable latency
C. It provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
D. Each link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.

Question # 145

What are two benefits of using the PortFast feature? (Choose two ) 

A. Enabled interfaces are automatically placed in listening state
B. Enabled interfaces come up and move to the forwarding state immediately
C. Enabled interfaces never generate topology change notifications.
D. Enabled interfaces that move to the learning state generate switch topology changenotifications
E. Enabled interfaces wait 50 seconds before they move to the forwarding state

Question # 146

An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently? 

A. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
B. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
C. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128
D. ip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224

Question # 147

Which statement correctly compares traditional networks and controller-based networks? 

A. Only traditional networks offer a centralized control plane
B. Only traditional networks natively support centralized management
C. Traditional and controller-based networks abstract policies from device configurations 
D. Only controller-based networks decouple the control plane and the data plane  

Question # 148

When OSPF learns multiple paths to a network, how does it select a route? 

A. It multiple the active K value by 256 to calculate the route with the lowest metric.
B. For each existing interface, it adds the metric from the source router to the destination tocalculate the route with the lowest bandwidth.
C. It divides a reference bandwidth of 100 Mbps by the actual bandwidth of the existinginterface to calculate the router with the lowest cost.
D. It count the number of hops between the source router and the destination to determinethe router with the lowest metric

Question # 149

How does WPA3 improve security? 

A. It uses SAE for authentication.
B. It uses a 4-way handshake for authentication.
C. It uses RC4 for encryption.
D. It uses TKIP for encryption.

Question # 150

Which port type supports the spanning-tree portfast command without additional configuration? 

A. access ports
B. Layer 3 main Interfaces
C. Layer 3 suninterfaces
D. trunk ports

Question # 151

Refer to Exhibit. How does SW2 interact with other switches in this VTP domain? 

A. It processes VTP updates from any VTP clients on the network on its access ports.
B. It receives updates from all VTP servers and forwards all locally configured VLANs outall trunk ports
C. It forwards only the VTP advertisements that it receives on its trunk ports.
D. It transmits and processes VTP updates from any VTP Clients on the network on itstrunk ports 

Question # 152

Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security? 

A. IP SLA
B. syslog
C. NetFlow
D. SNMPv3

Question # 153

What is a role of access points in an enterprise network? 

A. connect wireless devices to a wired network
B. support secure user logins to devices or the network
C. integrate with SNMP in preventing DDoS attacks
D. serve as a first line of defense in an enterprise network

Question # 154

Refer to Exhibit. An engineer is configuring the NEW York router to reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router using interface Se0/0/0 as the primary path. Which two commands must be configured on the New York router so that it can reach the Lo1 interface of the Atlanta router via Washington when the link between New York and Atlanta goes down? (Choose two)

A. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1
B. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::1 5
C. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2012::2
D. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::2 5
E. ipv6 router 2000::1/128 2023::3 5 

Question # 155

Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency? 

A. modify hello interval
B. modify process ID
C. modify priority
D. modify network type

Question # 156

Refer to the exhibit. 

A. internal BGP route
B. /24 route of a locally configured IP
C. statically assigned route
D. route learned through EIGRP

Question # 157

What describes the operation of virtual machines? 

A. Virtual machines are responsible for managing and allocating host hardware resources  
B. In a virtual machine environment, physical servers must run one operating system at a time.
C. Virtual machines are the physical hardware that support a virtual environment.  
D. Virtual machines are operating system instances that are decoupled from server hardware 

Question # 158

An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company's security organization. The webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code. Which type of security program is in place?

A. Physical access control  
B. Social engineering attack  
C. brute force attack  
D. user awareness  

Question # 159

When DHCP is configured on a router, which command must be entered so the default gateway is automatically distributed?

A. default-router  
B. default-gateway  
C. ip helper-address  
D. dns-server  

Question # 160

What makes Cisco DNA Center different from traditional network management applications and their management of networks? 

A. It omits supports auto-discovery of network elements in a greenfield deployment.
B. It modular design allows someone to implement different versions to meet the specificneeds of an organization
C. It abstracts policy from the actual device configuration
D. It does not support high availability of management functions when operating in clustermode

Question # 161

Drag and drop the threat-mitigation techniques from the left onto the types of threat or attack they mitigate on the right.

Question # 162

Refer to the exhibit. An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:"% Connection refused by remote host" Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic? 

A. Add the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration
B. Remove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.
C. Add the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.
D. Remove the password command from line vty 0 4.

Question # 163

A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?

A. enable AAA override  
B. enable RX-SOP
C. enable DTIM
D. enable Band Select

Question # 164

Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem? 

A. The OSPF router IDs are mismatched.
B. Router2 is using the default hello timer.
C. The network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.
D. The OSPF process IDs are mismatched.

Question # 165

What does a switch use to build its MAC address table? 

A. VTP  
B. DTP  
C. egress traffic  
D. ingress traffic  

Question # 166

Refer to Exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)

A. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1  
B. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3  
C. ipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0  
D. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2  
E. ipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1  

Question # 167

Which two protocols must be disabled to increase security for management connections to a Wireless LAN Controller? (Choose two ) 

A. Telnet
B. SSH
C. HTTPD. HTTPSE. TFTPAnswer: A,C
D. HTTPS
E. TFTP

Question # 168

Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two ) 

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E

Question # 169

Two switches are connected and using Cisco Dynamic Trunking Protocol SW1 is set to Dynamic Desirable What is the result of this configuration? 

A. The link is in a down state.  
B. The link is in an error disables state  
C. The link is becomes an access port.  
D. The link becomes a trunk port.  

Question # 170

How is the native VLAN secured in a network? 

A. separate from other VLANs within the administrative domain  
B. give it a value in the private VLAN range  
C. assign it as VLAN 1  
D. configure it as a different VLAN ID on each end of the link  

Question # 171

Which attribute does a router use to select the best path when two or more different routes to the same destination exist from two different routing protocols.

A. dual algorithm  
B. metric  
C. administrative distance  
D. hop count  

Question # 172

What are network endpoints? 

A. act as routers to connect a user to the service prowler network  
B. a threat to the network if they are compromised  
C. support inter-VLAN connectivity  
D. enforce policies for campus-wide traffic going to the internet  

Question # 173

What are two characteristics of a controller-based network? (Choose two) 

A. The administrator can make configuration updates from the CLI
B. It uses northbound and southbound APIs to communicate between architectural layers
C. It moves the control plane to a central point.
D. It decentralizes the control plane, which allows each device to make its own forwardingdecisions
E. It uses Telnet to report system issues.

Question # 174

Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16? 

A. It selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address. 
B. It chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
C. it load-balances traffic between all three routes  
D. It chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance  

Question # 175

Refer to the exhibit. Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1 0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1 1 0/24? 

A. eBGP
B. static 
C. OSPF
D. EIGRP

Question # 176

Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform? 

A. allows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts  
B. provides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network  
C. ensures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing  
D. enables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts  

Question # 177

What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+? 

A. RADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used formultiple types of authentication
B. TACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload
C. TACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them
D. RADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logsonly start, stop, and interim commands

Question # 178

Why was the RFC 1918 address space defined? 

A. conserve public IPv4 addressing  
B. preserve public IPv6 address space  
C. reduce instances of overlapping IP addresses  
D. support the NAT protocol  

Question # 179

What are two benefits of FHRPs? (Choose two.) 

A. They prevent (oops in the Layer 2 network.
B. They allow encrypted traffic.
C. They are able to bundle muftlple ports to increase bandwidth
D. They enable automatic failover of the default gateway.
E. They allow multiple devices lo serve as a single virtual gateway for clients in the network

Question # 180

Which API is used in controller-based architectures to interact with edge devices? 

A. overlay  
B. northbound  
C. underlay  
D. southbound  

Question # 181

When deploying syslog, which severity level logs informational message? 

A. 0
B. 2
C. 4
D. 6

Question # 182

A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?

A. a DHCP Relay Agent  
B. DHCP Binding  
C. a DHCP Pool  
D. DHCP Snooping  

Question # 183

Which command must be entered when a device is configured as an NTP server? 

A. ntp authenticate
B. ntp server
C. ntp peer
D. ntp master

Question # 184

What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server? 

A. A TCP connection has been torn down  
B. An ICMP connection has been built  
C. An interface line has changed status  
D. A certificate has expired.  

Question # 185

What is a similarly between 1000BASE-LX and 1000BASE-T standards? 

A. Both use the same data-link header and trailer formats
B. Both cable types support LP connectors
C. Both cable types support Rj-45 connectors
D. Both support up to 550 meters between nodes 

Question # 186

Refer to the exhibitAn engineer configured NAT translations and has verified that the configuration is correct. Which IP address is the source IP?

A. 10.4.4.4  
B. 10.4.4.5  
C. 172.23.103.10  
D. 172.23.104.4  

Question # 187

What are two characteristics of a public cloud Implementation? (Choose two.) 

A. It is owned and maintained by one party, but it is shared among multiple organizations.
B. It enables an organization to fully customize how It deploys network resources.
C. It provides services that are accessed over the Internet.
D. It Is a data center on the public Internet that maintains cloud services for only onecompany.
E. It supports network resources from a centralized third-party provider and privatelyowned virtual resources 

Question # 188

A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF By default, which type of OSPF network does this interface belong to? 

A. point-to-multipoint
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. nonbroadcast

Question # 189

Which IPv6 address block sends packets to a group address rather than a single address? 

A. 2000::/3  
B. FC00::/7  
C. FE80::/10  
D. FF00::/8  

Question # 190

Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network? 

A. provides an added level of protection against Internet exposure
B. provides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers
C. allows communication across the Internet to other private networks
D. allows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries