PDF Only
$35.00 Free Updates Upto 90 Days
- 156-215.81 Dumps PDF
- 400 Questions
- Updated On July 26, 2024
PDF + Test Engine
$60.00 Free Updates Upto 90 Days
- 156-215.81 Question Answers
- 400 Questions
- Updated On July 26, 2024
Test Engine
$50.00 Free Updates Upto 90 Days
- 156-215.81 Practice Questions
- 400 Questions
- Updated On July 26, 2024
How to pass CheckPoint 156-215.81 exam with the help of dumps?
DumpsPool provides you the finest quality resources you’ve been looking for to no avail. So, it's due time you stop stressing and get ready for the exam. Our Online Test Engine provides you with the guidance you need to pass the certification exam. We guarantee top-grade results because we know we’ve covered each topic in a precise and understandable manner. Our expert team prepared the latest CheckPoint 156-215.81 Dumps to satisfy your need for training. Plus, they are in two different formats: Dumps PDF and Online Test Engine.
How Do I Know CheckPoint 156-215.81 Dumps are Worth it?
Did we mention our latest 156-215.81 Dumps PDF is also available as Online Test Engine? And that’s just the point where things start to take root. Of all the amazing features you are offered here at DumpsPool, the money-back guarantee has to be the best one. Now that you know you don’t have to worry about the payments. Let us explore all other reasons you would want to buy from us. Other than affordable Real Exam Dumps, you are offered three-month free updates.
You can easily scroll through our large catalog of certification exams. And, pick any exam to start your training. That’s right, DumpsPool isn’t limited to just CheckPoint Exams. We trust our customers need the support of an authentic and reliable resource. So, we made sure there is never any outdated content in our study resources. Our expert team makes sure everything is up to the mark by keeping an eye on every single update. Our main concern and focus are that you understand the real exam format. So, you can pass the exam in an easier way!
IT Students Are Using our Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Dumps Worldwide!
It is a well-established fact that certification exams can’t be conquered without some help from experts. The point of using Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Practice Question Answers is exactly that. You are constantly surrounded by IT experts who’ve been through you are about to and know better. The 24/7 customer service of DumpsPool ensures you are in touch with these experts whenever needed. Our 100% success rate and validity around the world, make us the most trusted resource candidates use. The updated Dumps PDF helps you pass the exam on the first attempt. And, with the money-back guarantee, you feel safe buying from us. You can claim your return on not passing the exam.
How to Get 156-215.81 Real Exam Dumps?
Getting access to the real exam dumps is as easy as pressing a button, literally! There are various resources available online, but the majority of them sell scams or copied content. So, if you are going to attempt the 156-215.81 exam, you need to be sure you are buying the right kind of Dumps. All the Dumps PDF available on DumpsPool are as unique and the latest as they can be. Plus, our Practice Question Answers are tested and approved by professionals. Making it the top authentic resource available on the internet. Our expert has made sure the Online Test Engine is free from outdated & fake content, repeated questions, and false plus indefinite information, etc. We make every penny count, and you leave our platform fully satisfied!
Checkpoint 156-215.81 Exam Overview:
| Aspect | Details |
|---|---|
| Exam Name | Check Point Certified Security Administrator (CCSA) R80.10 |
| Exam Code | 156-215.81 |
| Exam Cost | $250 USD |
| Total Time | 90 minutes |
| Available Languages | English |
| Passing Marks | 70% |
| Exam Type | Proctored, multiple-choice questions (MCQs) and scenario-based questions |
| Prerequisites | No formal prerequisites, but familiarity with networking concepts is recommended |
| Exam Delivery | Pearson VUE testing centers |
| Certification Validity | 2 years |
Check Point Certified Security Administrator R81.20 Exam Topics Breakdown
| Domain | Weight(%) | Description |
|---|---|---|
| 1. Check Point Technology Overview | 23% | Fundamentals of Check Point technology, Security Policies, and Managing User Access. |
| 2. Deployment Platforms and Security Policies | 17% | Working with different deployment platforms, Security Policy Layers, and Policy Packages. |
| 3. Monitoring Traffic and Connections | 17% | Monitoring traffic using SmartView Tracker and SmartView Monitor, and managing connections. |
| 4. Network Address Translations | 10% | Configuring and managing NAT. |
| 5. User Management and Authentication | 17% | Configuring user authentication methods, managing users, and implementing Identity Awareness. |
| 6. Securing Communication | 10% | Implementing VPNs, working with certificates, and securing communications. |
| 7. Managing Security and Logs | 6% | Managing security, implementing Threat Prevention policies, and generating reports. |
Frequently Asked Questions
Question # 1
When changes are made to a Rule base, it is important to _______________ to enforce changes.
A. Publish database
B. Activate policy
C. Install policy
D. Save changes
Question # 2
When a SAM rule is required on Security Gateway to quickly block suspicious connections which are not restricted by the Security Policy, what actions does the administrator need to take?
A. SmartView Monitor should be opened and then the SAM rule/s can be applied
immediately. Installing policy is not required.
B. The policy type SAM must be added to the Policy Package and a new SAM rule must be
applied. Simply Publishing the changes applies the SAM rule on the firewall.
C. The administrator must work on the firewall CLI (for example with SSH and PuTTY) and
the command 'sam block' must be used with the right parameters.
D. The administrator should open the LOGS & MONITOR view and find the relevant log.
Right clicking on the log entry will show the Create New SAM rule option.
Question # 3
Identity Awareness allows the Security Administrator to configure network access based on which of the following?
A. Name of the application, identity of the user, and identity of the machine
B. Identity of the machine, username, and certificate
C. Network location, identity of a user, and identity of a machine
D. Browser-Based Authentication, identity of a user, and network location
Question # 4
Which command shows the installed licenses?
A. cplic print
B. print cplic
C. fwlic print
D. show licenses
Question # 5
Which of the following is NOT an option to calculate the traffic direction?
A. Incoming
B. Internal
C. External
D. Outgoing
Question # 6
Fill in the blank: When a policy package is installed, ________ are also distributed to the target installation Security Gateways.
A. User and objects databases
B. Network databases
C. SmartConsole databases
D. User databases
Question # 7
What is the most recommended installation method for Check Point appliances?
A. SmartUpdate installation
B. DVD media created with Check Point ISOMorphic
C. USB media created with Check Point ISOMorphic
D. Cloud based installation
Question # 8
The Network Operations Center administrator needs access to Check Point Security devices mostly for troubleshooting purposes. You do not want to give her access to the expert mode, but she still should be able to run tcpdump. How can you achieve this requirement?
A. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to
the role.Create new user with any UID and assign role to the user.
B. Add tcpdump to CLISH using add command.Create a new access role.Add tcpdump to
the role.Create new user with UID 0 and assign role to the user.
C. Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with UID
0 and assign role to the user.
D. Create a new access role.Add expert-mode access to the role.Create new user with any
UID and assign role to the user.
Question # 9
When dealing with rule base layers, what two layer types can be utilized?
A. Ordered Layers and Inline Layers
B. Inbound Layers and Outbound Layers
C. R81.10 does not support Layers
D. Structured Layers and Overlap Layers
Question # 10
Which of the following is NOT a tracking option? (Select three)
A. Partial log
B. Log
C. Network log
D. Full log
Question # 11
Fill in the blank: In Security Gateways R75 and above, SIC uses ______________ for encryption.
A. AES-128
B. AES-256
C. DES
D. 3DES
Question # 12
Which two of these Check Point Protocols are used by ?
A. ELA and CPD
B. FWD and LEA
C. FWD and CPLOG
D. ELA and CPLOG
Question # 13
Which of the following describes how Threat Extraction functions?
A. Detect threats and provides a detailed report of discovered threats
B. Proactively detects threats
C. Delivers file with original content
D. Delivers PDF versions of original files with active content removed
Question # 14
A Check Point Software license consists of two components, the Software Blade and the Software Container. There are ______ types of Software Containers: ________.
A. Two; Security Management and Endpoint Security
B. Two; Endpoint Security and Security Gateway
C. Three; Security Management, Security Gateway, and Endpoint Security
D. Three; Security Gateway, Endpoint Security, and Gateway Management
Question # 15
Your internal networks 10.1.1.0/24, 10.2.2.0/24 and 192.168.0.0/16 are behind the Internet Security Gateway. Considering that Layer 2 and Layer 3 setup is correct, what are the steps you will need to do in SmartConsole in order to get the connection working?
A. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish and install the policy.
B. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish the policy.
C. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define automatic NAT for each network to NAT the networks behind a public IP.3. Publish and install the policy.
D. 1. Define an accept rule in Security Policy.2. Define Security Gateway to hide all internal
networks behind the gateway’s external IP.3. Publish the policy.
Question # 16
Which of the following is an authentication method used for Identity Awareness?
A. SSL
B. Captive Portal
C. PKI
D. RSA
Question # 17
To ensure that VMAC mode is enabled, which CLI command you should run on all cluster members? Choose the best answer.
A. fw ctl set int fwha vmac global param enabled
B. fw ctl get int fwha vmac global param enabled; result of command should return value 1
C. cphaprob –a if
D. fw ctl get int fwha_vmac_global_param_enabled; result of command should return value
1
Question # 18
When URL Filtering is set, what identifying data gets sent to the Check Point Online Web Service?
A. The URL and server certificate are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service
B. The full URL, including page data, is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service
C. The host part of the URL is sent to the Check Point Online Web Service
D. The URL and IP address are sent to the Check Point Online Web Service
Question # 19
When should you generate new licenses?
A. Before installing contract files.
B. After a device upgrade.
C. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address associated with
the license changes.
D. Only when the license is upgraded.
Question # 20
You are the Check Point administrator for Alpha Corp. You received a call that one of the users is unable to browse the Internet on their new tablet which is connected to the company wireless, which goes through a Check Point Gateway. How would you review the logs to see what is blocking this traffic?
A. Open SmartLog and connect remotely to the wireless controller
B. Open SmartEvent to see why they are being blocked
C. Open SmartDashboard and review the logs tab
D. From SmartConsole, go to the Log & Monitor and filter for the IP address of the tablet.
Question # 21
Which policy type is used to enforce bandwidth and traffic control rules?
A. Access Control
B. Threat Emulation
C. Threat Prevention
D. QoS
Question # 22
Which of the following is NOT an identity source used for Identity Awareness?
A. Remote Access
B. UserCheck
C. AD Query
D. RADIUS
Question # 23
What are the three deployment considerations for a secure network?
A. Distributed, Bridge Mode, and Remote
B. Bridge Mode, Remote, and Standalone
C. Remote, Standalone, and Distributed
D. Standalone, Distributed, and Bridge Mode
Question # 24
Which of the following is NOT a component of a Distinguished Name?
A. Common Name
B. Country
C. User container
D. Organizational Unit
Question # 25
In Logging and Monitoring, the tracking options are Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log. Which of the following options can you add to each Log, Detailed Log and Extended Log?
A. Accounting
B. Suppression
C. Accounting/Suppression
D. Accounting/Extended
Question # 26
Which Check Point software blade provides Application Security and identity control?
A. Identity Awareness
B. Data Loss Prevention
C. URL Filtering
D. Application Control
Question # 27
Fill in the blanks: In _____ NAT, Only the ________ is translated.
A. Static; source
B. Simple; source
C. Hide; destination
D. Hide; source
Question # 28
Which tool allows for the automatic updating of the Gaia OS and Check Point products installed on the Gaia OS?
A. CPASE - Check Point Automatic Service Engine
B. CPAUE - Check Point Automatic Update Engine
C. CPDAS - Check Point Deployment Agent Service
D. CPUSE - Check Point Upgrade Service Engine
Question # 29
Which of the following technologies extracts detailed information from packets and stores that information in state tables?
A. INSPECT Engine
B. Next-Generation Firewall
C. Packet Filtering
D. Application Layer Firewall
Question # 30
Which key is created during Phase 2 of a site-to-site VPN?
A. Pre-shared secret
B. Diffie-Hellman Public Key
C. Symmetrical IPSec key
D. Diffie-Hellman Private Key
Question # 31
What is true about the IPS-Blade?
A. in R80, IPS is managed by the Threat Prevention Policy
B. in R80, in the IPS Layer, the only three possible actions are Basic, Optimized and Strict
C. in R80, IPS Exceptions cannot be attached to “all rules”
D. in R80, the GeoPolicy Exceptions and the Threat Prevention Exceptions are the same
Question # 32
Fill in the blanks: The Application Layer Firewalls inspect traffic through the ______ layer(s) of the TCP/IP model and up to and including the ______ layer.
A. Upper; Application
B. First two; Internet
C. Lower; Application
D. First two; Transport
Question # 33
Which statement describes what Identity Sharing is in Identity Awareness?
A. Management servers can acquire and share identities with Security Gateways
B. Users can share identities with other users
C. Security Gateways can acquire and share identities with other Security Gateways
D. Administrators can share identifies with other administrators
Question # 34
Application Control/URL filtering database library is known as:
A. Application database
B. AppWiki
C. Application-Forensic Database
D. Application Library
Question # 35
In R80 Management, apart from using SmartConsole, objects or rules can also be modified using:
A. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Gateways prior to R80.
B. A complete CLI and API interface using SSH and custom CPCode integration.
C. 3rd Party integration of CLI and API for Management prior to R80.
D. A complete CLI and API interface for Management with 3rd Party integration.
Question # 36
Session unique identifiers are passed to the web api using which http header option?
A. X-chkp-sid
B. Accept-Charset
C. Proxy-Authorization
D. Application
Question # 37
To quickly review when Threat Prevention signatures were last updated, which Threat Tool would an administrator use?
A. Protections
B. IPS Protections
C. Profiles
D. ThreatWiki
Question # 38
Which SmartConsole tab is used to monitor network and security performance?
A. Manage & Settings
B. Security Policies
C. Gateway & Servers
D. Logs & Monitor
Question # 39
Which backup utility captures the most information and tends to create the largest archives?
A. backup
B. snapshot
C. Database Revision
D. migrate export
Question # 40
Which application is used for the central management and deployment of licenses and packages?
A. SmartProvisioning
B. SmartLicense
C. SmartUpdate
D. Deployment Agent
Question # 41
When defining group-based access in an LDAP environment with Identity Awareness, what is the BEST object type to represent an LDAP group in a Security Policy?
A. Access Role
B. User Group
C. SmartDirectory Group
D. Group Template
Question # 42
Fill in the blank: An LDAP server holds one or more ______________.
A. Server Units
B. Administrator Units
C. Account Units
D. Account Servers
Question # 43
SandBlast offers flexibility in implementation based on their individual business needs. What is an option for deployment of Check Point SandBlast Zero-Day Protection?
A. Smart Cloud Services
B. Load Sharing Mode Services
C. Threat Agent Solution
D. Public Cloud Services
Question # 44
Fill in the blank: When tunnel test packets no longer invoke a response, SmartView Monitordisplays _____________ for the given VPN tunnel.
A. Down
B. No Response
C. Inactive
D. Failed
Question # 45
When configuring Spoof Tracking, which tracking actions can an administrator select to be done when spoofed packets are detected?
A. Log, send snmp trap, email
B. Drop packet, alert, none
C. Log, alert, none
D. Log, allow packets, email
Question # 46
Name the pre-defined Roles included in Gaia OS.
A. AdminRole, and MonitorRole
B. ReadWriteRole, and ReadyOnly Role
C. AdminRole, cloningAdminRole, and Monitor Role
D. AdminRole
Question # 47
Identity Awareness allows easy configuration for network access and auditing based on what three items?
A. Client machine IP address.
B. Network location, the identity of a user and the identity of a machine.
C. Log server IP address.
D. Gateway proxy IP address.
Question # 48
After the initial installation on Check Point appliance, you notice that the Management interface and default gateway are incorrect. Which commands could you use to set the IP to 192.168.80.200/24 and default gateway to 192.168.80.1.
A. set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24set static-route default
nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config
B. add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route
0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config
C. set interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 255.255.255.0add static-route
0.0.0.0.0.0.0.0 gw 192.168.80.1 onsave config
D. add interface Mgmt ipv4-address 192.168.80.200 mask-length 24add static-route default
nexthop gateway address 192.168.80.1 onsave config
Question # 49
What command would show the API server status?
A. cpm status
B. api restart
C. api status
D. show api status
Question # 50
Which of the following is NOT a valid deployment option for R80?
A. All-in-one (stand-alone)
B. Log server
C. SmartEvent
D. Multi-domain management server
Question # 51
Which of the following is NOT a component of Check Point Capsule?
A. Capsule Docs
B. Capsule Cloud
C. Capsule Enterprise
D. Capsule Workspace
Question # 52
What is NOT an advantage of Stateful Inspection?
A. High Performance
B. Good Security
C. No Screening above Network layer
D. Transparency
Question # 53
A stateful inspection firewall works by registering connection data and compiling this information. Where is the information stored?
A. In the system SMEM memory pool.
B. In State tables.
C. In the Sessions table.
D. In a CSV file on the firewall hard drive located in $FWDIR/conf/.
Question # 54
Which back up method uses the command line to create an image of the OS?
A. System backup
B. Save Configuration
C. Migrate
D. snapshot
Question # 55
Which one of the following is a way that the objects can be manipulated using the new API integration in R80 Management?
A. Microsoft Publisher
B. JSON
C. Microsoft Word
D. RC4 Encryption
Question # 56
Security Gateway software blades must be attached to what?
A. Security Gateway
B. Security Gateway container
C. Management server
D. Management container
Question # 57
Which product correlates logs and detects security threats, providing a centralized display of potential attack patterns from all network devices?
A. SmartDashboard
B. SmartEvent
C. SmartView Monitor
D. SmartUpdate
Question # 58
When should you generate new licenses?
A. Before installing contract files.
B. After an RMA procedure when the MAC address or serial number of the appliancechanges.
C. When the existing license expires, license is upgraded or the IP-address where thelicense is tied changes.
D. Only when the license is upgraded.
Question # 59
When an Admin logs into SmartConsole and sees a lock icon on a gateway object and cannot edit that object, what does that indicate?
A. The gateway is not powered on.
B. Incorrect routing to reach the gateway.
C. The Admin would need to login to Read-Only mode
D. Another Admin has made an edit to that object and has yet to publish the change.
Question # 60
A security zone is a group of one or more network interfaces from different centrally managed gateways. What is considered part of the zone?
A. The zone is based on the network topology and determined according to where theinterface leads to.
B. Security Zones are not supported by Check Point firewalls.
C. The firewall rule can be configured to include one or more subnets in a zone.
D. The local directly connected subnet defined by the subnet IP and subnet mask.
Question # 61
How is communication between different Check Point components secured in R80? As with all questions, select the best answer.
A. By using IPSEC
B. By using SIC
C. By using ICA
D. By using 3DES
Question # 62
Fill in the blank: It is Best Practice to have a _____ rule at the end of each policy layer.
A. Explicit Drop
B. Implied Drop
C. Explicit CleanUp
D. Implicit Drop
Question # 63
Fill in the blank: Service blades must be attached to a ______________.
A. Security Gateway
B. Management container
C. Management server
D. Security Gateway container
Question # 64
To provide updated malicious data signatures to all Threat Prevention blades, the Threat Prevention gateway does what with the data?
A. Cache the data to speed up its own function.
B. Share the data to the ThreatCloud for use by other Threat Prevention blades.
C. Log the traffic for Administrator viewing.
D. Delete the data to ensure an analysis of the data is done each time.
Question # 65
What is the main difference between Static NAT and Hide NAT?
A. Static NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.
B. Static NAT allow incoming and outgoing connections. Hide NAT only allows outgoing
connections.
C. Static NAT only allows outgoing connections. Hide NAT allows incoming and outgoing
connections.
D. Hide NAT only allows incoming connections to protect your network.
Question # 66
True or False: In R80, more than one administrator can login to the Security Management Server with write permission at the same time.
A. False, this feature has to be enabled in the Global Properties.
B. True, every administrator works in a session that is independent of the otheradministrators.
C. True, every administrator works on a different database that is independent of the otheradministrators.
D. False, only one administrator can login with write permission.
Question # 67
The ______ software blade package uses CPU-level and OS-level sandboxing in order to detect and block malware.
A. Next Generation Threat Prevention
B. Next Generation Threat Emulation
C. Next Generation Threat Extraction
D. Next Generation Firewall
Question # 68
When enabling tracking on a rule, what is the default option?
A. Accounting Log
B. Extended Log
C. Log
D. Detailed Log
Question # 69
In SmartConsole, on which tab are Permissions and Administrators defined?
A. Manage and Settings
B. Logs and Monitor
C. Security Policies
D. Gateways and Servers
Question # 70
Which configuration element determines which traffic should be encrypted into a VPN tunnel vs. sent in the clear?
A. The firewall topologies
B. NAT Rules
C. The Rule Base
D. The VPN Domains
Question # 71
What does it mean if Deyra sees the gateway status: Choose the BEST answer.
A. SmartCenter Server cannot reach this Security Gateway
B. There is a blade reporting a problem
C. VPN software blade is reporting a malfunction
D. Security Gateway’s MGNT NIC card is disconnected.
Question # 72
Sticky Decision Function (SDF) is required to prevent which of the following? Assume you set up an Active-Active cluster.
A. Symmetric routing
B. Failovers
C. Asymmetric routing
D. Anti-Spoofing
Question # 73
What needs to be configured if the NAT property ‘Translate destination on client side’ is not enabled in Global properties?
A. A host route to route to the destination IP
B. Use the file local.arp to add the ARP entries for NAT to work
C. Nothing, the Gateway takes care of all details necessary
D. Enabling ‘Allow bi-directional NAT’ for NAT to work correctly
Question # 74
Which of the following is NOT a policy type available for each policy package?
A. Threat Emulation
B. Access Control
C. Desktop Security
D. Threat Prevention
Question # 75
When using Monitored circuit VRRP, what is a priority delta?
A. When an interface fails the priority changes to the priority delta
B. When an interface fails the delta claims the priority
C. When an interface fails the priority delta is subtracted from the priority
D. When an interface fails the priority delta decides if the other interfaces takes over
Question # 76
Gaia has two default user accounts that cannot be deleted. What are those user accounts?
A. Admin and Default
B. Expert and Clish
C. Control and Monitor
D. Admin and Monitor
Question # 77
Which option will match a connection regardless of its association with a VPN community?
A. All Site-to-Site VPN Communities
B. Accept all encrypted traffic
C. All Connections (Clear or Encrypted)
D. Specific VPN Communities
Question # 78
Vanessa is attempting to log into the Gaia Web Portal. She is able to login successfully. Then she tries the same username and password for SmartConsole but gets the message in the screenshot image below. She has checked that the IP address of the Server is correct and the username and password she used to login into Gaia is also correct.What is the most likely reason?
A. Check Point R80 SmartConsole authentication is more secure than in previous versions
and Vanessa requires a special authentication key for R80 SmartConsole. Check that the
correct key details are used.
B. Check Point Management software authentication details are not automatically the same
as the Operating System authentication details. Check that she is using the correct details.
C. SmartConsole Authentication is not allowed for Vanessa until a Super administrator has
logged in first and cleared any other administrator sessions.
D. Authentication failed because Vanessa’s username is not allowed in the new Threat
Prevention console update checks even though these checks passed with Gaia.
Question # 79
Which of the following is NOT a valid application navigation tab in the R80 SmartConsole?
A. Manage and Command Line
B. Logs and Monitor
C. Security Policies
D. Gateway and Servers
Question # 80
True or False: The destination server for Security Gateway logs depends on a Security Management Server configuration.
A. False, log servers are configured on the Log Server General Properties
B. True, all Security Gateways will only forward logs with a SmartCenter Serverconfiguration
C. True, all Security Gateways forward logs automatically to the Security ManagementServer
D. False, log servers are enabled on the Security Gateway General Properties
Leave a comment
Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *